1. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
2. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse effect
of gentamicin.
3. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Hypokalemia
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Aluminum-based antacids commonly cause
constipation.
4. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which over-the
,counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
5. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
6. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
7. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
, C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
8. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients need
regular eye exams.
9. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
10. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
2. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse effect
of gentamicin.
3. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Hypokalemia
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Aluminum-based antacids commonly cause
constipation.
4. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which over-the
,counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
5. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
6. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
7. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
, C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
8. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients need
regular eye exams.
9. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
10. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
