1. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
2. A client on clozapine reports fever and sore throat. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
3. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when initiating
therapy. It’s an injectable incretin mimetic.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
,assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
5. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
6. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
7. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
, C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
8. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed. Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
9. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
10. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
2. A client on clozapine reports fever and sore throat. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
3. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when initiating
therapy. It’s an injectable incretin mimetic.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
,assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
5. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
6. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
7. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
, C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
8. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed. Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
9. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
10. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
