Microbiology Final Exam Review Questions and Answers

Microbiology Final Exam Review Questions and Answers All of the following statements agree with the germ theory of disease except: A) Microorganisms can invade other organisms and cause disease B) Maggots only grow on meat that is left in an open flask because microbes are transmitted by flies and do not spontaneously generate C) Lister developed sanitation techniques that were based upon germ theory of disease D) Disease causing organisms will spontaneously arise from decaying meat - Correct Answers: D The first person to use a microscope to observe cells invisible to the naked eye was: A) Matthias Schleiden B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek C) Louis Pasteur D) Robert Hooke - Correct Answers: B The idea that life could appear from nonliving materials was called which of the following?: A) The cell theory B) The cellular genesis theory C) The theory of diapedesis D) The theory of spontaneous generation - Correct Answers: D A substance derived from one microorganism that kills or restricts the growth of other microorganisms is best described as a(n): A) Antibiotic B) Poison C) Antibody D) Vaccine - Correct Answers: A The curve in Pastuer's swan neck flasks was important because: A) It prevented flies from escaping the flask B) It allowed only warm air to reach the infusion C) It trapped microbes that otherwise would have entered the flask D) It prevented oxygen from reaching organisms inside the flask - Correct Answers: C A compound light microscope can generally see objects as no smaller than a: A) Protein B) Large protozoa C) Typical virus D) Small bacterium - Correct Answers: D During microscopic observation of a specimen, the part of a compound microscope that focuses light through a specimen: A) Condenser B) Objective lens C) Iris diaphragm D) Ocular lens - Correct Answers: A Dyes are often used during microscopy to increase which of the following?: A) Magnification B) Motility C) Contrast D) Resolution - Correct Answers: C A simple stain: A) Involves a counterstain stop B) Uses only a single dye C) Distinguishes between two different parts of an organism D) Is composed of an equal balance of acidic and basic dyes - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is the specific name for a stain that colors the specimen?: A) Acid fast stain B) Counterstain C) Differential stain D) Negative stain - Correct Answers: D Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape?: A) Vibrio B) Pseudopod C) Coccus D) Bacillus - Correct Answers: B Prokaryotes are classified into which domain(s)?: A) Domain archaea only B) Domain bacteria only C) Domains archaea and bacteria only D) Domains bacteria and eukarya only - Correct Answers: C The bacterial chromosome is located in which of the following?: A) The capsule B) The nucleoid region C) The nucleus D) The thylakoids - Correct Answers: B When there is a substantial difference in refractive index between two materials such as glass and air, which of the following describes what will happen to light passing from one material to the other?: A) It will fail to be refracted B) It will undergo a small amount of reflection C) It will undergo a large amount of refraction D) None of the above - Correct Answers: C Which of the following cellular structures are found only in prokaryotic cells?: A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Pili C) Nucleolus D) Lysosomes - Correct Answers: B The gram stain technique differentiates between cells with different amounts of ________ in their cell wall: A) Teichoic acid B) Peptidoglycan C) Lipotechoic acid D) Glutamic acid - Correct Answers: B The fluid mosaic model describes the structure of: A) Cell walls B) Cell membranes C) Capsules D) Endosymbiotic relationships - Correct Answers: B The long tail end of a membrane phospholipid is: A) Water loving B) Hydrophilic C) Hydrophobic D) Isotonic - Correct Answers: C Endospores are usually induced to form when: A) Temperatures are normal B) Cells are growing in a vegetative state C) Water moves across cell membrane D) Essential nutrients are depleted - Correct Answers: D Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using: A) Conjugation pili B) Axial filaments C) Cilia D) Lophotrichous flagella - Correct Answers: A Bacteria move by means of: A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Capsule D) Conjugation pili - Correct Answers: B During diffusion, molecules: A) Move from cooler areas to hotter areas B) Move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration C) Move from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration D) Expend energy to move around - Correct Answers: B A charged molecule which moves down its concentration gradient and across a protein channel in a cell membrane without energy being expended by the cell is experiencing____: A) Simple diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Facilitated diffusion - Correct Answers: D Osmosis most directly involves: A) Water moving down a concentration gradient B) Organic molecules crossing a membrane C) Energy being expended to import large molecules into the cell D) Sugars and salts moving down their concentration gradient - Correct Answers: A A typical bacterial cell has a salt concentration of about 1%. If the cell is placed in a solution containing 1.5% salt, the net flow of water will be___: A) Into the cell B) Out of the cell C) Equally in and out of the cell D) None of the above since water doesn't cross bacterial cell membranes - Correct Answers: B Which is the correct ordering of cell wall components starting from outside the cell and going inward?: A) In gram negative bacteria, peptidoglycan, lipid membrane B) In gram negative bacteria, peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharide, outer membrane, cell membrane C) In acid fast bacteria, lipid layer, peptidoglycan, cell membrane D) In gram positive bacteria, peptidoglycan, lipid layer, cell membrane - Correct Answers: C Which cell would best be able to survive in a hypotonic environment?: A) An animal red blood cell B) An archaeal cell lacking a cell wall C) A gram positive bacterium in a medium containing penicillin D) A gram positive bacterium in a medium without antibiotics - Correct Answers: D Antibiotics that contain a beta lactam ring: A) Interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis B) Act as an antimetabolite C) Bind to a bacterial RNA polymerase D) Are erroneously incorporated into nucleic acids - Correct Answers: A Which of the characteristics apply to an ideal antimicrobial agent?: A) Allergenic B) Instability C) Short shelf life D) Selective toxicity - Correct Answers: D The type of cell reproduction in which a transverse septum divides a cell in half is known as ____ and is the normal mode of replication in_____: A) Budding, bacteria B) Budding, yeast C) Binary fission, bacteria D) Binary fission, yeast - Correct Answers: C Which of the following is the correct order of phases of growth in the growth curve of a bacteria culture?: A) Death/ decline phase-Lag phase-Stationary phase B) Lag phase-Log phase-Stationary phase- death/decline phase C) Log phase-Lag phase-Stationary phase-Death/decline phase D) Stationary phase- Log phase- Lag phase- Death/ decline phase - Correct Answers: B In the stationary phase of bacterial growth: A) The number of newly generated cells is greater than the number of dying cells B) The number of newly generated cells is less than the number of dying cells C) The number of newly generated cells is the same as the number of dying cells D) None of the above - Correct Answers: C Neutral pH=7. Acidophiles would be expected to grow best at a pH of ____: A) 3 B) 9 C) 7 D) 12 - Correct Answers: A Human pathogens are generally which type of microbe?: A) Thermophiles B) Mesophiles C) Psychrophiles D) Extreme thermophiles - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is most likely to have evolved to live in the deep layers of mud where there is a complete lack of free oxygen?: A) Obligate aerobe B) Obligate anaerobe C) Facultative anaerobe D) Aero tolerant anaerobe - Correct Answers: B Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise?: A) Aerotolerant anaerobes B) Facultative anaerobes C) Obligate anaerobes D) Obligate aerobes - Correct Answers: B Bacteria that ferment lactose grow as red colonies on MacConkey's agar while those that do not ferment lactose are transparent. MacConkey's agar can best be described as being: A) Selective B) Differential C) Complex D) Enriched - Correct Answers: B Sabourard's agar has a low pH which encourages the growth of molds and discourages the growth of bacteria. Sabourard's agar could best be described as being: A) Selective B) Differential C) Complex D) Enriched - Correct Answers: A You grow three unknown species of bacteria on Eosin Methylene Blue agar to determine what can ferment lactose. One does not grow, one grows with blue color, and one grows with a shiny green color. For what purpose are you using this medium? A) Differential B) Selective C) Both a differential medium and a selective medium D) Neither a differential medium nor a selective medium - Correct Answers: C Which of the following involves sterilization by heating steam in a jacket and subsequent entrance of the steam into a sterilization chamber, where materials and substances to be sterilized are placed in a/an: A) Autoclave B) Pasteurization chamber C) Dry heat chamber D) Open flame - Correct Answers: A Which of the following actions would be most clearly considered bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal? A) Autoclaving bacterial cultures B) Spraying 70% alcohol on a laboratory bench C) UV light treatment D) Placing a bacterial culture in the -20 C freezer - Correct Answers: D A candle jar would be used for growing: A) Gram negative organisms B) Halophiles C) Psychorophiles D) Microaerophiles - Correct Answers: D Sterilization is the: A) Killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object B) Reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms in a material or object C) Killing or removal of some but not all microorganisms D) Disinfection of living tissue - Correct Answers: A Disinfection is the: A) Killing of viruses while only inhibiting fungi and bacteria B) Killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object C) Same as sterilization D) Reduction of the number of pathogenic vegetative microorganisms - Correct Answers: D What is a chemical agent that can safely be used externally on living tissue to destroy microorganisms or to inhibit their growth?: A) Germicide B) Antiseptic C) Disinfectant D) Sanitizer - Correct Answers: B When food is salted, water diffuses_______ microorganisms, causing them to_____ and die: A) Out of, explode B) Out of, shrink C) Into, shrink D) Into, explode - Correct Answers: B What sterilization technique should be used for sterilizing metal instruments?: A) Filtration B) Disinfection C) Pasteurization D) Autoclaving - Correct Answers: D Which of the following is NOT a typical action of Chemical Microbial Control Agents?: A) Damage to proteins B) Changing spin direction of flagella D) Alteration of membrane permeability - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is true about Taxonomy of organisms we currently use?: A) Sorted into three domains: Archaebacteria, fungi, and Animalia B) Sorted into three domains, defined by relation of ribosomal RNA sequence C) We still use the two categories defines by Linneaus D) Organisms are defined in five kingdoms: Monera, Protista, fungi, plantae, animalia - Correct Answers: B What is the cheapest and easiest means to prevent the spread of disease?: A) Exposing operating rooms to UV light B) Pasteurizing milk C) Vigorous hand washing D) Filtering air in TB rooms - Correct Answers: C Beta lactams interrupt the enzyme responsible for_______, which causes the cell wall to be susceptible to_____: A) Water transport, active transport B) Peptidoglycan crosslinking, osmotic shock C) Peptidoglycan digestion, facilitated diffusion D) Peptidoglycan division, water transport - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is a series of steps for determining the causative agent of a particular disease: A) Pasteur's principle B) Crick's guidelines C) Koch's postulates D) Lister's checklists - Correct Answers: C Which of the following describes impetigo?: A) A highly contagious infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus Pyogenes that causes vesicles and pustules B) A mild and self limiting viral infection that can be caused by a wide range of infectious agents C) A noncontagious rash (not caused by an infectious agent) that spreads rapidly across the skin D) A systemic fungal infection caused by Candida spp. and other species that is difficult to treat - Correct Answers: A Which microbe causes streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)?: A) S. aureus B) S. epidermis C) S. pyogenes D) S. typhimurium - Correct Answers: C Which refers to dysuria?: A) Bladder pain B) Painful urination C) Production of urine that contains blood D) Production of urine that contains pus - Correct Answers: B The causative agent of TB: A) Is the genus mycobacterium B) Stains as non acid fast C) Is the genus clostridium D) Has a thick peptidoglycan layer as its outermost cell wall component - Correct Answers: A Plaque on the teeth is an example of which of the following?: A) A cavity B) An infection C) A biofilm D) Furuncles - Correct Answers: C How does staphylococcus aureus cause GI symptoms?: A) By producing enterotoxins when growing in food B) By penetrating the stomach lining C) By reproducing in the intestines, causing enteritis D) By reproducing in the stomach, causing gastritis and ulcers - Correct Answers: A What is the scientific name of the unusual bacterium that can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and is associated with peptic ulcers, as well as with increased risk of stomach cancer? A) Escheria coli O 157:H7 B) Heliobactor pylori C) Salmmonella typhi D) Vibrio cholera - Correct Answers: B What is a dangerous drop in BP associated with infection called? A) Bacteremia B) Hypotensive shock C) Sepsis D) Septic shock - Correct Answers: D Which of the following best describes Borrelia burgdorferi? A) A bacillus that causes plague B) A coccus that causes cat scratch C) A spirillum that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever D) A spirochete that causes Lyme disease - Correct Answers: D Before enrolling in college, students are encouraged to undergo vaccination for which of the following diseases?: A) Botulism B) Candidiasis C) Meningococcal Meningitis D) Listeriosis - Correct Answers: C Which of the following is FALSE about the pathogen Listeria monocytogenes? A) It is a mycobacterium B) It is dangerous for pregnant woman since it can cross placental barrier C) It can reproduce at refrigeration temperatures D) It is often a contaminant in dairy and soft cheeses - Correct Answers: A Why is it challenging to get rid of biofilms in a wound?: A) There is too much blood around the wound surface B) The film surface is too dry to allow antimicrobials from attacking the microbes C) The collection of microbes in a network of extracellular structure and slime protects antimicrobials from attacking microbes D) Viruses and fungi are present - Correct Answers: C In the EDpuzzle video for a product called AQUACEL Ag+ wound dressings, they claim that their product works better to prevent biofilms on large wounds. What features made the wound dressing better at attacking biofilms?: A) Made of silver coating that kills anything it touches B) Has a higher dose of and more choices of antibiotics inside the bandage C) Was used by NASA in outer space D) Breaks down the slime and matrix to allow antimicrobials better asses to microbes - Correct Answers: D In the video showing the problems regarding Chipotle food poisoning, what was the cause of food poisoning? A) The tomatoes had E. coli on them in all cases B) Norovirus was found in all cases C) Salmonella was found in meat in all cases D) Several different problems found, due to different supply chains and food handling - Correct Answers: D In the past 30 years, the primary method of advancing research in antibiotics has been: A) Discovering new drugs in the rainforest B) Making new versions of older antibiotics C) Using oral versus intravenous route of administration D) Using tablet versus liquid versions of drug - Correct Answers: B How do antimicrobial soaps encourage more antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?: A) Triclosan kills 100% of microbes B) Sub lethal amounts of antimicrobials encourage growth of slightly resistant bacteria C) Triclosan and surfactants combined cause biofilms to break down D) Sub lethal amounts of antimicrobials kill spores but allow gram positive vegetative cells to grow - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is the purpose of fermentation?: A) To regenerate oxygen B) To produce carbon dioxide C) To produce large quantities of additional energy D) To regenerate NAD+ - Correct Answers: D In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose eventually produces_____ molecule(s) of pyruvate: A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is true about glycolysis?: A) The net yield is two ATP's for each molecule of glucose B) It provides cells with the largest amount of energy in metabolism steps C) Ten molecules of ATP are used in the initial phosphorylation steps D) There is a net loss of ATP after glycolysis - Correct Answers: A Pyruvate is metabolized in the absence of oxygen during the process of: A) Glycolysis B) Fermentation C) Oxidation D) Dark reactions - Correct Answers: B The synthesis of proteins, in which amino acids are joined together to make a single large molecule, would be most correctly described as being a/an _______ reaction: A) Anabolic B) Metabolic C) Cytobolic D) Catabolic - Correct Answers: A Which of the following describes a molecule that gained a hydrogen?: A) Anabolized B) Electonated C) Oxidized D) Reduced - Correct Answers: D Organisms which can fix Carbon into larger Carbon molecules are called: A) Chemotrophs B) Autotrophs C) Phototrophs D) Heterotrophs - Correct Answers: B An enzyme substrate complex forms when substrate binds to an enzyme at the enzyme's ____ site: A) Anabolic B) Allosteric C) Active D) Operative - Correct Answers: C Which molecule is often called the cell's energy currency?: A) Flavin adenine dinucleotide B) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide C) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate D) Adenosine triphosphate - Correct Answers: D Which is a common electron acceptor in catabolic reactions?: A) ATP B) FADH2 C) NAD+ D) NADPH - Correct Answers: C Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts para amino benzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid, preventing the production of folic acid and, eventually purine synthesis. In this case, the sulfa drug is acting as a/an: A) Allosteric inhibitor B) Competitive inhibitor C) Non competitive inhibitor D) Uncompetitive inhibitor - Correct Answers: B The initial substrate molecule for the Krebs cycle is: A) Pyruvate B) Acetyl CoA C) Acetic acid D) Butanediol - Correct Answers: B In the electron transport chain, the energy to make ATP comes from electrons and H+ protons from: A) FADH2 B) NADH C) Both FADH2 and NADH D) Neither FADH2 nor NADH - Correct Answers: C In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is: A) Carbon B) Sulfur C) Oxygen D) Coenzyme Q - Correct Answers: C In the chemiosmosis step of metabolism, how did there come to be a higher concentration of hydrogen ions on one side of the membrane?: A) The Krebs cycle uses acetyl CoA to pump the hydrogen ions there B) A combination of diffusion and osmosis led to the imbalance of hydrogen ions C) Proteins in the electron transport chain pumped the hydrogen ions there, creating an imbalance that drives ATP synthase enzyme D) Water has broken down into H+ and OH- ions only on one side of this membrane by chance - Correct Answers: C ATP synthase is located______ in prokaryotes, and it is found _______ in eukaryotes: A) In mitochondria, in mitochondria B) On cell membrane, in mitochondria C) In outer cell membrane of gram negative cells only, on nuclear membrane D) On cell membrane, on nuclear membrane - Correct Answers: B Which of the following processes yields the most ATP?: A) Glycolysis B) Krebs cycle C) Fermentation D) Electron transport chain and chemiosmosis - Correct Answers: D What is the final fate of the carbon after glycolysis, pyruvate processing, and Krebs cycle? A) Half of the carbons become acetyl CoA, and the rest are oxidized to CO2 B) Half of the carbons become acetyl CoA, and the rest are reduced to CO2 C) All carbons have been reduced to CO2 D) All carbons have been oxidized to CO2 - Correct Answers: D A bacterium is found that has a mutation on one of the protein complexes in the electron transport chain. The mutation makes the electron transport chain protein not allow the final electron acceptor to receive the electron. Do you predict that the bacteria will grow as aerobic or anaerobic, and will ATP synthase produce little or a lot of ATP?: A) Anaerobic, little ATP B) Aerobic, little ATP C) Anaerobic, a lot of ATP D) Aerobic, a lot of ATP - Correct Answers: A An mRNA molecule contains three nucleotide (triplet) units called____. These units are read by ribosomes: A) Amino acids B) Bases C) Codons D) Anticodons - Correct Answers: C One strand of DNA runs from 5' to 3' and the opposing strand runs 3' to 5', meaning that the strands are oriented in which way?: A) Antiparallel B) Conservative C) Antihelical D) Semiconservative - Correct Answers: A The central dogma describes which of the following?: A) The process by which enzymes are modified after translation B) the steps of gene expression C) The way DNA is replicated D) The way RNA is used as a template to make DNA - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is another name for the template strand (the strand of DNA that is transcribed)?: A) Anticodon strand B) Antisense strand C) Sense strand D) Transcription strand - Correct Answers: B The process of ______ results in the synthesis of an RNA molecule: A) Transversion B) Transcription C) Replication D) Translation - Correct Answers: B Reverse transcription occurs when: A) Protein is used as a template to produce RNA B) RNA is used as a template to produce protein C) RNA is used as a template to produce DNA D) DNA is used as a template to produce RNA - Correct Answers: C During replication DNA is synthesized by______, and it builds a new DNA molecule in a _______ direction.: A) DNA polymerase, 3'->5' B) RNA polymerase, 3'->5' C) DNA polymerase, 5'->3' D) RNA polymerase, 5'->3' - Correct Answers: C Which of the following correctly explains why DNA replication is described as semiconservative? A) Each daughter strand contains one old strand and one new strand B) Each daughter strand contains two new strands C) The nucleotides used in replication are recycled multiple times D) The nucleotides used in replication contain old and new compounds - Correct Answers: A An example of a frameshift mutation occurs when: A) A Uracil replaces a guanine in the DNA sequence of an organism B) Three new bases are inserted into the DNA strand C) Three bases are deleted from the DNA strand D) A thymine is inserted into the DNA sequence of an organism - Correct Answers: D Mutagens such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by: A) Causing thymine dimers to crosslink B) Substituting for one of the bases normally found in DNA C) Removing an amino group from a nucleotide D) Causing breaks in chromosomes - Correct Answers: B Polymerase chain reaction: A) Cannot be applied to historic samples and to criminal investigations B) Uses DNA polymerase from human cells C) Involves cycling between 30C and 37C to unwind and copy DNA D) Allows for the rapid amplification of a billion copies of DNA without needing a living cell - Correct Answers: D Which ONE of the following statements is always TRUE?: A) A mutation is harmful B) Mutations lead to changes in protein function C) Changes in DNA lead to changes in protein function D) A change in the DNA may change a protein's shape and function - Correct Answers: D The transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by a virus is: A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Transferration D) Conjugation - Correct Answers: B Which plasmid encodes the genes that cause bacterial conjugation? A) An F plasmid B) Any plasmid C) Plasmids cannot be transferred by conjugation D) pUC19, a cloning vector plasmid - Correct Answers: A A viral cycle which ends with the rupture of the cell and release of new viral particles is the: A) Temperate cycle B) Lytic cycle C) Lysogenic cycle D) Prophage cycle - Correct Answers: B During the process of lysogeny: A) A bacterium takes up DNA from the media B) A phage integrates into the chromosome of the bacterium, creating a prophage C) A new phage particles are assembled in the host bacterium D) A bacterium is split open to release new phage particles - Correct Answers: B Find the complimentary DNA sequence that would base pair correctly with ATCGCCT: A) ATCCGGA B) TAGCGGA C) AUGCGGC D) UAGGCCA - Correct Answers: B A research student uses genetic engineering to create a recombinant DNA molecule. Which of the following steps is TRUE: A) The same restriction enzymes are used to cut the plasmid pUC19 and the insert DNA sample B) The enzyme beta galactosidase is used to move DNA into cells C) The enzyme transductase is used to ligate DNA pieces together D) The enzyme RNA polymerase is examined for blue or white colonies - Correct Answers: A Which of the following processes increases genetic variation seen in bacteria?: A) Transformation B) Conjugation C) Transduction D) All of the above - Correct Answers: D In an experiment such as Griffith's pneumococcal experiment which of the following, when injected into a mouth, would result in its death?: A) Heat killed, smooth pneumococci B) Live, rough pneumococci C) A mixture of heat killed smooth pneumococci and live rough pneumococci D) A mixture of heat killed rough pneumococci and live rough penumococci - Correct Answers: C Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells?: A) Transduction B) Transcription C) Conjugation D) Transformation - Correct Answers: C DNA analysis in a genome study would not be an effective method to detect which type of pathogen?: A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Viruses D) Prions - Correct Answers: D A transgenic organism: A) Contains DNA from two different species of organisms B) Contains a plasmid C) Is resistant to viral infection D) Contains DNA which allows it to transfer plasmids from its cells to other cells - Correct Answers: A DNA can be cut at specific sites by using: A) Ligases B) Restriction enzymes C) Antibiotics D) F+ plasmids - Correct Answers: B Bacteria that contain recombinant plasmids can be easily isolated because: A) They are smaller than non recombinant bacteria B) They are larger than nonrecombinant bacteria C) They are designed to be grown anaerobically D) Their colonies will be distinguished by a color variation from those colonies containing nonrecombinant plasmids - Correct Answers: D In an effective cloning strategy, transformed plasmids can be selected with media containing_______, while recombinant plasmids with vector and insert can be screened using______: A) An antibiotic, blue-white color B) Blue-white color, an antibiotic C) An antibiotic, a second antibiotic D) Blue-white color, antifungal - Correct Answers: A Using the beta galactosidase screening method, we would know that we have a possible successfully cloned recombinant DNA plasmid with insert if we see: A) A white colony. This has insert DNA interrupting the lacZ gene B) A blue colony. This has no insert DNA interrupting the lacZ gene C) A blue colony. This has insert DNA interrupting the lacZ gene D) A white colony. This has no insert DNA interrupting the lacZ gene - Correct Answers: A How can the human antithrombin gene be expressed only in goat mammary gland cells in the case of a transgenic female goat? What specific recombinant DNA must be inserted in the transgenic goat?: A) Goat mammary gland regulatory sequences and Human regulatory antithrombin sequences B) Goat mammary gland regulatory sequences and Human antithrombin gene C) Goat mammary gland gene and human antithrombin gene D) Goat mammary gland gene and human regulatory antithrombin sequences - Correct Answers: B The main jobs all viruses must accomplish upon infecting a host cell include: A) Transform the cell and kill the cell B) Copy the viral genome and express the viral genes C) Copy the viral DNA and cut the host DNA D) Insert its RNA genome into the chromosome and reverse transcribe its proteins - Correct Answers: B A minus (antisense) strand RNA virus might synthesize proteins within a host cell through the following synthesis pathway: A) Antisense RNA->protein B) Antisense RNA-> DNA-> protein C) Antisense RNA-> sense RNA-> protein D) Antisense RNA-> sense RNA-> protein - Correct Answers: D Select the true statement regarding yellow fever: A) Yellow fever is only in urban areas B) Yellow fever affects the liver C) Yellow fever is transmitted by worms D) Yellow fever is caused by a filovirus - Correct Answers: B How does HIV know to only infect a specific type of cell from the immune system rather than any other human cell? A) The immune cells are the largest cells, making it easier for HIV to infect B) The specific immune cell target has holes in its membrane, allowing easy penetration for the virus C) The specific immune cell has protein receptors that fit perfectly with proteins on the HIV viral surface D) The integrase and reverse transcriptase proteins from HIV match the correct cell from the immune system - Correct Answers: C Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by: A) Host cell lysis B) Host cell rupture C) Budding D) Animal viruses never leave the host cell - Correct Answers: C Which of the following viruses plays an important role in the development of cervical cancer?: A) Adenoviruses B) Arbovirus C) Herpes virus D) Human papilloma viruses - Correct Answers: D A patient has symptoms of a common cold due to rhinovirus. They request an antibiotic. You tell them: A) Yes, antibiotics are the proper course of action to reduce viral infection B) Yes, antibiotics will prevent the latent cold virus from becoming lytic C) No, antibiotics only kill arboviruses D) NO, antibiotics are only appropriate if there is a secondary bacterial infection - Correct Answers: D Which of the following diseases does NOT involve a mosquito in its viral transmission?: A) MERS B) Dengue fever C) Yellow fever D) Chikungunya - Correct Answers: A In the early 1990's, this emerging virus was of concern to the United States, found in caves of the southwestern states. It is transmitted from rodent feces and urine to human beings: A) Influenza virus B) Rhinovirus C) Hantavirus D) Poliovirus - Correct Answers: C Viruses can be visualized using which method?: A) Compound light microscope B) Electron microscope C) The naked eye D) Ultraviolet rays - Correct Answers: B A bacteriophage infects a host cell and the genome integrates itself into the host chromosome. Sometime later, the phage is excised along with a short piece of DNA adjacent to the insertion point. Both the phage DNA and the host DNA are packaged into the same capsid. The bacteriophage then infects a new cell, delivering both phage and bacterial DNA. Which process is being described in this scenario?: A) The lytic cycle, reactivating the lysogenic cycle, followed by generalized transduction B) The lytic cycle, reactivating as the lysogenic cycle, followed by specialized transduction C) The lysogenic cycle, reactivating as the lytic cycle, followed by generalized transduction D) The lysogenic cycle, reactivating as the lytic cycle, followed by specialized transduction - Correct Answers: D Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a typical virus replication cycle?: A) Maturation-> adsorption-> penetration-> release-> synthesis B) Adsorption->penetration-> release-> maturation-> synthesis C) Adsorption-> penetration-> maturation-> synthesis-> release D) Adsorption-> penetration-> synthesis-> maturation-> release - Correct Answers: D The best method for prevention of microcephaly due to Zika is: A) Vaccine B) Antibiotics C) Antivrial therapy targeting reverse transcriptase D) Mosquito control - Correct Answers: D After observing the body's response to Ebola virus infection, the category of viral disease must be: A) Respiratory B) Urinary C) Systemic D) Nervous - Correct Answers: C The reason influenza virus has antigenic shift is: A) The antibodies kill the surface proteins B) The proteins on the virus surface move around C) RNA genomes of two viruses that coinfect the same host cell can recombine D) The enzymes that copy the RNA genome make errors, causing mutations - Correct Answers: C Predict the DNA sequence from the mRNA sequence provided: mRNA: 5' AUG ACU UAC UAG 3': A) 5' AUG ACU UAC UAG 3' B) 5' ATG ACT TAC TAG 3' C) 3' TAC TGA ATG TAC 5' D) 3' TAC TGA ATG ATC 3' - Correct Answers: C Imagine that DNA polymerase made a mistake copying the DNA sequence. After RNA polymerase read the now mutated DNA, it caused the mRNA transcript to insert another G after the first codon. Which of the following statements is false?: A) The stop codon no longer works B) This is an example of a base pair substitution point mutation C) This is a frame shift mutation D) There are now two Leu (leucine) amino acids in the protein that were not there before - Correct Answers: B Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the following best represents the genetic information flow used by retroviruses?: A) DNA-> mRNA-> protein B) DNA-> protein C) RNA-> DNA-> mRNA-> protein D) RNA-> protein - Correct Answers: C When Ebola virus replicated in a host cell, the cell becomes a virus production machine. Once the cell has produced many copies of the virus, holes in the cell membrane are created to release thousands of copies of the virus. This is an example of: A) Vegetative growth B) Lysogeny C) Latency D) Lysis - Correct Answers: D One of the long term health concerns with a DNA genome virus is: A) Recombination of viral genome into host cell genome B) RNA dependent RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase C) Antigenic shift D) Antigenic drift - Correct Answers: A Fatty acid catabolism yields glycerol and long fatty acid Carbon chains. Eventually, these products all break down into which of the following molecules, thereby entering the aerobic respiration pathway? A) Glucose B) Pyruvate C) Acetyl-CoA D) CO2 - Correct Answers: C Professor Rodriguez studied RNA processing, the step connecting transcription and a mature RNA leaving the nucleus of eukaryotes. Which of the following is NOT a step that happens to a transcribed RNA before it leaves the nucleus? A) Make an antisense RNA copy of the sense RNA strand B) 5' cap on mRNA C) 3' polyA tail on mRNA D) Splicing (removal of introns and joining of exons) - Correct Answers: A Assuming the treatment works at 100% efficiency, which of the following potential HIV treatments could result in elimination of HIV from a patient's genome? A) Truvada PrEP B) Protease inhibitor drug cocktail C) CRISPR- Cas9 deletion of provirus D) CRISPR-Cas9 deletion of T helper cell membrane protein receptor - Correct Answers: C Which of the following methods would be most effective at controlling Dengue Virus transmission? A) Reverse Transcriptase inhibitor B) Mosquitos infected with Wolbachia bacteria C) Integrase inhibitor D) Guardasil vaccine - Correct Answers: B All of the following are components of the nonspecific host defenses EXCEPT: A) Antibodies B) Interferon C) Mucus D) Complement - Correct Answers: A A multilobed lymphatic organ that functions to process lymphocytes known as T cells and release them into the blood is the: A) Tonsil B) Trachea C) Peyer's patches D) Thymus gland - Correct Answers: D Leukocytes responsible for killing intracellular viruses are: A) Fixed macrophages B) Basophils C) Dendritic cells D) Natural killer cells - Correct Answers: D The process whereby immune cells leave the blood by passing between the endothelial cells that line blood vessels is known as: A) Leukocytosis B) Phagocytosis C) Specific defenses D) Diapedesis - Correct Answers: D Inflammation and Natural Killer cells are examples of: A) Viral immunity B) Specific immunity C) Non-specific immunity D) Inflammatory immunity - Correct Answers: C Complement: A) Is a system that consists of over 20 proteins that function in a cascade like manner B) Activation results in the onset of inflammation C) Causes target cell to be lysed and release contents D) All of the above - Correct Answers: D When activated by an infected cell, interferon: A) Opsonizes cells with antibodies B) Causes diapedesis C) Reduces protein synthesis of neighboring cells D) Fuses a phhagosome with a lysosome to make a phagolysosome - Correct Answers: C Colostrum, which contains high concentrations of antibodies passed onto an infant from a mother during breast feeding, is an example of what type of immunity?: A) Artificially acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity - Correct Answers: C Vaccines are an example of which class of immunity?: A) Active artificially acquired B) Active naturally acquired C) Passive artificially acquired D) Passive naturally acquired - Correct Answers: A A protein molecule produced in a host in response to an antigen and capable of binding specifically to that antigen is a/an: A) Antibody B) Perforin C) Antigen D) Cytokine - Correct Answers: A Cells that synthesize and release antibody molecules are: A) Plasma cells B) Stem cells C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes D) Helper T lymphocytes - Correct Answers: A Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes EXCEPT: A) Distinguishes self from non self B) Specificity C) Memory D) First line of defense - Correct Answers: D B cells, T helper cells, and T cytotoxic cells have the following in common when activated: A) They send chemical signals to other cells and produce antibodies B) They send chemical signals to other cells and produce IgM C) They each perform their own unique task and create a memory cell of themselves D) They produce IgG and IgM to elicit the primary immune response - Correct Answers: C The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed, thus producing tolerance in the host is: A) Clonal deletion B) Heterogeneity C) Memory D) Primary response - Correct Answers: A Which of the following is NOT considered a professional Antigen presenting cell?: A) Plasma cell B) B cell C) Dendritic cell D) Macrophage - Correct Answers: A Antibodies produced by the humoral response help eliminate foreign antigens by all of the following ways except: A) Interferon activation B) Neutralization C) Opsonization D) Complement activation - Correct Answers: A All of the following have correctly matched antibody class with their function EXCEPT: A) IgA- found in saliva and breast milk B) IgE- Involved in allergy response C) IgM- early response to an antigen presented for the first time D) IgD- the first antibody class released against an antigen seen for first and second time - Correct Answers: D Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except: A) Antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body B) Made by hybridomas which make only one specific antibody C) Produced by a clone of cultured cells D) Used for diagnostic tests and for possible cancer treatments - Correct Answers: A Which of the following T cells has receptors on its surface and recognizes virus-infected cells by viral antigens presented on macrophages MHC class I?: A) Tx cells B) Tc cells C) To cells D) Th cells - Correct Answers: B All of the following are types of vaccines except: A) Killed whole bacteria B) Purified active toxin C) Toxoid D) Live attenuated virus - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is NOT a traditional component of a vaccine?: A) Adjuvant B) Allergen desensitization therapeutics C) Stabilizers and preservatives D) Recombinant antigens - Correct Answers: B Hypersensitvity or allergy refers to the immune system responding______: A) In an exaggerated way to a foreign substance B) Too little too late C) Inadequately to an antigen D) To its own tissues as if they were foreign - Correct Answers: A Immunodeficiency refers to the immune system responding_____: A) In an exaggerated way to a foreign substance B) So that there is too much of a good thing C) Not strong enough to an antigen D) To its own tissues as if they were foreign - Correct Answers: C Which of the following describes the long term medical procedure used to reduce an allergy response with hopes of curing the patient of the allergy?: A) Epinephrine B) Antibiotics C) Desensitization D) Sensitization - Correct Answers: C Macrophages attacking bacteria at the site of infection is an example of: A) Specific immunity B) Macroimmunity C) Viral immunity D) Non specific immunity - Correct Answers: D B cells are examples of: A) Specific immunity B) Viral immunity C) Non specific immunity D) Quaternary immunity - Correct Answers: A When too few people in a community become immunized against a pathogen, disease can spread quickly due to holes in: A) Autoimmunity B) Herd immunity C) Adjuvant usage D) Immunosuppressive therapy - Correct Answers: B Which blood type is considered to be a universal donor since the individual has no A or B antigens on their red blood cells?: A) A B) B C) O D) AB - Correct Answers: C Parasites which live within the bodies of other organisms are classified as____: A) Accidental parasite B) Endoparasite C) Facultative parasite D) Ectoparasite - Correct Answers: B A leech that feeds on a person swimming in a pond then releases itself from the skin to return to the water is an example of a/an: A) Endoparasite B) Permanent parasite C) Temporary parasite D) Reservoir host - Correct Answers: C All protists: A) Are photosynthetic B) Have a true nucleus C) Have cell walls D) Are parasites - Correct Answers: B Cell walls in fungi are often made of: A) Cellulose B) Peptidoglycan C) Chitin D) Calcium carbonate - Correct Answers: C Under cooked pork is most likely to pass along: A) Schistosoma B) Wucheria D) Trichinella - Correct Answers: D Wucheria bancrofti is the causative agent of: A) Trichinosis B) Malaria C) Sleeping sickness D) Elephatiasis - Correct Answers: D The vector for Guinea worm: A) Ticks B) Insects C) Arachnids D) Small plankton water fleas - Correct Answers: D Being a character for sickle cell anemia confers some genetic advantage against infection by which parasite?: A) Leishmania B) Plasmodium C) Candida D) Dracumculus - Correct Answers: B Ticks can transmit the bacteria for Lyme disease and protozoan for which of the following diseases?: A) Babesiosis B) Trichomonas C) Malaria D) Candidiasis - Correct Answers: A Which of the following is FALSE about Candida albicans: A) Oral infection is called Thrush B) It is a mycobacterium C) It is part of the human microbiome D) Vaginal infection is called a yeast infection - Correct Answers: B The disease is carried by snails in contaminated water, resulting in abdominal distention and release of eggs in human urine and feces: A) Filariasis B) Candidiasis C) Schistosomiasis D) Giardiasis - Correct Answers: C The two types of disease control used to eradicate river blindness include: A) Fly/ pest control of an antiprotozoan drugs B) Fly/ pest control and antihelminth drugs C) Antifungal and antihelminthic drugs D) Antiprotozoan and antihielmenthic drugs - Correct Answers: B The infectious agent that is significantly dangerous for pregnant women to handle cat feces from litter boxes is: A) Leishmania B) Toxoplasma C) Trichomonas D) Schistosoma - Correct Answers: B This protozoan is a common STD: A) Leishmania B) Toxoplasma C) Trichomonas D) Schistosoma - Correct Answers: C Drugs which target and tresols are targeting which eukaryote?: A) Human B) Protozoan C) Helminth D) Fungus - Correct Answers: D Drugs which target glucose uptake are targeting which eukaryote?: A) Human B) Protozoan C) Helminth D) Fungus - Correct Answers: C Leukemia could be indicated after what kind of blood cell count results?: A) Low hematocrit B) High leukocytes C) High platelets D) Low leukocytes - Correct Answers: B The CRISPR-Cas9 system for bacteria is closest to what system in humans?: A) Immune system B) Digestive system C) Circulatory system D) Respiratory system - Correct Answers: A What makes the CRISPR-Cas system so precise?: A) Cas9 enzyme only cuts RNA B) Cas9 enzyme cuts DNA better than other enzymes C) Cas9 enzyme recognizes the specific location to cut due to precise match of DNA and RNA sequences D) Cas9 enzyme recognizes the specific location to cut due to protein tag markers - Correct Answers: C A hospital patient just finished a strong course of antibiotics and then contracted C. dificile infection, causing bacterial diarrhea. What is a good remedy?: A) A second course of antibiotics B) Fecal transplant from a healthy donor C) Antiparasitic drugs D) Antiviral therapy - Correct Answers: B In a blood smear of a patient with malaria, which of the following could be observed under a microscope?: A) Malaria virus inside T helper cells B) Plasmodium inside Red Blood cells C) Malaria virus inside Red Blood cells D) Plasmodium inside T helper cells - Correct Answers: B In a blood smear of a patient with malaria, which of the following could be observed under a microscope?: A) Malaria virus inside T helper cells B) Plasmodium inside Red blood cells C) Malaria virus inside Red blood cells D) Plasmodium inside T helper cells - Correct Answers: B Killing virus infected cells is an example of triggering the ______ immune response; this involves activation of ______ immune cells: A) Humoral, plasma B) Humoral, cytotoxic T cells C) Cell- mediated; plasma cells D) Cell- mediated; cytotoxic T cells - Correct Answers: D Mast cells and basophils release which chemical signal involved in hypersensitivity type 1?: A) Defensins B) Interferon C) Histamine D) Leucocidin - Correct Answers: C Which molecular fragment on an antigen molecule do antibodies recognize and respond to?: A) Epitope B) Constant region C) Complement D) Variable region - Correct Answers: A A cell that has been infected with an intracellular pathogen will be targeted for destruction by which type of lymphocyte?: A) B cell B) Helper T cell C) Cytotoxic T cell D) Plasma cell - Correct Answers: C Cytotoxic T cells are activated by which of the following?: A) MHC class I B) MHC class II C) MHC class III D) Both MHC class I and class II presenting the same antigen - Correct Answers: A T helper cells activate the humoral response due to interaction with antigen presenting cells displaying which of the following?: A) MHC class I B) MHC class II C) MHC class II D) Both MHC class I and II presenting the same antigen - Correct Answers: B Which of the following is the primary function of B cells?: A) To activate cytotoxic T cells B) To phagocytose intracellular pathogens C) To produce antibodies D) To target and destroy cells infected with an intracellular pathogen - Correct Answers: C Incorrectly identifying self tissue as foreign is an example of which of the following?: A) A type I hypersensitivity B) A type II hypersensitivity C) A type III hypersensitivity D) A type IV hypersensitivity - Correct Answers: B Rh factors are which of the following?: A) A type of T cell B) Examples of immune cells C) Red Blood Cell antigens D) Unimportant in blood transportation - Correct Answers: C Individuals with type O blood have which of the following on the surface of their red blood cells?: A) MHC class II antigens B) The O glycoprotein antigen only C) Modified A or B glycoprotein antigens that are unable to trigger an immune response D) Neither A nor B glycoprotein antigens - Correct Answers: D Which technique is used to help new tissues, using microscopy?: A) Gel electrophoresis B) Immunostaining C) Hemagglutination D) Western blotting - Correct Answers: B Which technique uses antibodies to identify the presence of a protein in a solution, such as presence of a food allergen in a commercially prepared food product?: A) ELISA B) Hemmagglutination C) Immunostaining D) Western blot - Correct Answers: A Which type of parasite causes both Chagas and Sleeping sickness?: A) Dracunculus B) Trypanosome C) Leishmania D) Plasmodium - Correct Answers: B This parasite is from the category_____: A) Protozoan B) Helminth, roundworm C) Helminth, flatworm D) Fungi - Correct Answers: A Which is the vector for Sleeping sickness?: A) Kissing bug B) Mosquito C) Tse Tse fly D) Snails - Correct Answers: C