NURS 231 Patho All Module1 To 10 Exams RATED 100%, GUARANTEED GRADED [A+]

Question 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: A bodybuilder’s muscles will display hyperplasia. True Correct! False It will display hypertrophy. Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia. True Correct! False It’s metaplasia. Question 3 0 / 2.5 pts True/False: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells You Answered True Correct Answer False Question 4 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. Correct! True lOMoARcPSD| False Question 5 10 / 10 pts Match the following: Deals with the cause of death in a population a. Incidence Number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time b. Prevalence Number of people with the disease in a population in a given time c. Morbidity The effect of an illness on one’s life d. Mortality Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which is NOT true of the cytoskeleton? It controls shape and movement Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions Correct! It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Peroxisomes and proteasomes are not part of the cytoskeleton. Question 7 1.67 / 2.5 pts Which of the following move across the cell membrane via diffusion? Select all that apply. Correct! lOMoARcPSD| Oxygen Glucose Correct Answer Water Correct! Carbon dioxide Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following are false regarding cell communication? Endocrine signaling depends on hormones Neurotransmitters act through synapses G-protein linked receptors act through an on-off switch Correct! Paracrine signaling releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which is true of the cytoskeleton? Select all that apply. Correct! It controls shape and movement Correct! Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Question 10 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice High blood pressure is an example of which of the following? Pathology Correct Answer lOMoARcPSD| Pathophysiology Physiology You Answered No answer text provided. Question 11 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice A patient has a fever and rash. What are these examples of? Correct! Signs Symptoms Both A & B Question 12 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following is true of a test’s sensitivity? It is how likely the same result will occur if repeated Correct! If negative, it can safely be assumed that the person does not have a disease It is considered a true-negative result It can only be calculated from people without the disease Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following is the effect of an illness on one’s life? Incidence Correct! Morbidity lOMoARcPSD| Prevalence Mortality Question 14 10 / 10 pts Define secondary prevention and give an example: Your Answer: It is one of three categories in disease prevention. It aims to detect and treat disease early, while the disease is asymptomatic and curable. An example is an annual Pap smear. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while the disease is asymptomatic and curable. Some examples include annual Pap smears to detect early cervical cancer, encouraging smoking cessation, checking blood pressure and cholesterol, and colonoscopy screening. Question 15 10 / 10 pts Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis. Your Answer: 2 types are dry and moist. In dry gangrenous, the affected tissue is dehydrated, shrinks back and becomes dark brown or black in color. THe spread of dry is slow. In wet, the affected area is cold, swollen, with no pulse. The skin is moist, black, and distended. Small blisters form and as liquefaction occurs, foul ordor emerges. The spread of wet gangrenous is rapid. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Question 16 10 / 10 pts Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. Your Answer: Necrosis is cell death in tissue or organ that is still part of a living person. An example of a type of necrosis is coagulative necrosis. This results from a sudden cutoff of the blood supply to an organ, such as the heart. Necrosis refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person. It often interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration. Coagulative necrosis results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly the heart and kidney. Liquefactive necrosis occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed. It is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses. Caseous necrosis occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis. Gangrenous necrosis most often affects the lower extremities or bowel and is secondary to vascular occlusion. The term gangrene is applied when a considerable mass of tissue undergoes necrosis. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Question 17 10 / 10 pts Match the type of cell injury to the cause. Some answers may be used more than once. (1 point each) Sunburn a. Physical agents Obesity b. Radiation injury Reactive oxygen species c. Chemical injury Low oxygen to tissues d. Biologic agents Fractures e. Nutritional imbalances OTC drugs f. Free radical injury Hypothermia g. Hypoxic cell injury Radiation treatment Lead toxicity Bacteria Question 18 10 / 10 pts List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each. Your Answer: Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nervous Epithelial tissue covers the body's outer surface, lines inner surfaces, forms glandular tissue. It is avascular and can be squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. An example of this type of tissue is our skin. Muscle tissue functions to move our bones, pump blood through the heart, as well as contract blood vessels. Cardiac muscle tissue is an example of muscle tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue. Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane. It is avascular, meaning without blood vessels. It receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests. Connective or supportive tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body. It connects and binds or supports the various tissues. Its cells produce the extracellular matrix that support and hold tissues together. Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells). The four types of connective tissue proper are loose (areolar), adipose, reticular, and dense connective tissue. The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs. Muscle tissue can accomplish this by contraction. The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments. Thin filaments are called actin, and the thick filaments are myosin. The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. Nervous tissue is distributed throughout the body for communication. It provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment. The two types of cells are neuron and glial cells. Neurons function is communication. Glial (meaning glue) cells support the neurons. Question 19 2.5 / 2.5 pts What is the most studied active transport system in the human body? Your Answer: The most studied active transport system is the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump. This pumo moves sodium from inside the cell to outside region, returning potassium to the inside of the cell. If this did not occur, sodium would remain in the cell, water would follow resulting in the cell to swell. Sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump Question 20 2.5 / 2.5 pts What is the term to describe when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient? Your Answer: Active transport Active transport Question 21 2.5 / 2.5 pts Give one function of a membrane potential: Your Answer: Generate nerve impulses Generate nerve impulse, muscle contractions, or cause hormone secretion Question 22 2.5 / 2.5 pts What is the term that describes a transport protein to help lipid soluble or large molecules pass through the membrane, that otherwise would not be able to get through? Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion facilitated diffusion Module 2 ExamQuestion 1 3 / 3 pts True/False: Blood tests for tumor markers are the single best screening tool for cancer. Why or why not? Your Answer: False. Tumor markers, which can be used for establishig prognosis, monitoring treatment and detecting recurrent disease, have limitiations. Under benign situations, tumor markers can still be elevated. Whereas in early stages of malignancy, not elevated. They have a lack of specificity and are then limited in their ability to screen or diagnose accuratley. False, they are elevated in benign conditions, most are not elevated in the early stages of malignancy. Question 2 3 / 3 pts Tissue biopsy is of critical importance in what role? Your Answer: Play a critical role in histologic and cytologic studies for diagnosis of cancers. Diagnosing the correct cancer and histology. Question 3 4 / 4 pts 1. List two signs or symptoms a patient may present with that might indicate a cancer diagnosis: 2. What are two side effects commonly experienced by cancer patients? Your Answer: 1) Bleeding and/or weight loss 2) Anorexia, hair loss 1. Bleeding; sore that doesn’t heal; fluid in the pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal spaces; chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, abdominal discomfort or swelling. Other possible answers can include a mass or lump, pain (need to be specific), fatigue, fevers, weight loss 2. Weight loss, wasting of body fat and muscle tissue, weakness, anorexia, and anemia, fatigue, sleep disturbances Question 4 10 / 10 pts Explain the TNM system: Your Answer: TNM system is a detailed staging system, created by AJCC, is used by cancer facilites. It classifies cancers into stages using 3 tumor components; Tumor, Nodes, Metastasis. T is size and spread of the primary tumor. N is how involved the lymph nodes. M is the extent of metastatic involvement. Classification: Tx, T0, Tis, T1- 4 Nx, N0, N1-3 Mx, M0, M1 T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor. N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes. M is the extent of the metastatic involvement. Question 5 10 / 10 pts 1. When would surgery be appropriate in the treatment of cancer? 2. Most chemotherapeutic drugs cause pancytopenia due to bone marrow suppression. What are the 3 possible adverse outcomes of this? Your Answer: 1. Surgery can be used if the tumor is solid and small with well-defines margins. Also can be used to treat oncologic emergencies and be used as prophylactic measures. 2. 3 possible adverse outcomes are neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia. 1. Surgery is often the first treatment for solid tumors. If the tumor is small with well-defined margins, it can be removed completely. It is also used for oncologic emergencies and prophylactic surgery in high risk patients. 2. Neutropenia- risk for infections Anemia- causing fatigue Thrombocytopenia- risk for bleeding Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True Correct! False False, cell differentiation Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. True Correct! False False, cell proliferation Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts What are two important properties that stem cells possess? Your Answer: Stem cells possess self-renewal and potency. Self renewal means that they can undergo mitotic divisions while maintaining undifferentiated state. Potency is the differentiation potential of stem cells. Potency and self-renewal Question 9 0 / 2.5 pts Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell? You Answered Muscle Bone Correct Answer Epithelial Neural Question 10 4 / 4 pts What is angiogenesis? Why do tumors need it? Your Answer: Angiogenesis is the development of new blood vessels within the tumor. In order to continue growing, it must establish blood vessels and growth factors. development of new blood vessels within the tumor. They need it to continue to grow. Question 11 3 / 3 pts What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? Your Answer: Proto-oncogenes and Tumor suppressor genes protooncogenes Question 12 1 / 3 pts What is a tumor suppressor gene? Give one example. Your Answer: It is a gene that codes for a protein that inhibits cell growth and signals apoptosis. An example is p53. Tumor suppressor genes are associated with gene underactivity. These genes slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die. BRCA1 or 2, TP53 Question 13 10 / 10 pts Determine if the tumor is benign or malignant based on the nomenclature: Papilloma Lipoma Leiomyosarcoma Hemangioma Adenocarcinoma Neuroblastoma Adenoma Melanoma Lymphoma Glioma Question 14 10 / 10 pts A 62-year-old man with a 30-pack year smoking history is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer with metastasis to the bone. (1) Explain the process of how cancer spreads metastatically. (2) What symptoms might he have presented with? (3) Which screening test would he have benefited from? Your Answer: 1. Metastasis is a multi-step process. Cancer cells breaks loose from the primary tumor and enters circulation via a blood vessel or lymp system. It finds a new favorable location to invade, grow, and establish blood supply. 2. Patient might have presented with shortness of breath, chest pain, and cough. 3. Patient would have benefited from a chest CT scan. (1) Metastasis- a cancer cell must break loose from the primary tumor, invade the surrounding extracellular matrix, gain access to a blood vessel, survive its passage in the bloodstream, emerge at a favorable location, invade the surrounding tissue, begin to grow, and establish a blood supply. (2) Chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, bone pain. (3) Yearly low-dose chest CT. Question 15 3 / 3 pts Benign tumors have which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply. Undifferentiated cells Correct! Grows by expansion Gains access to blood and lymph channels Correct! Growth may stop or regress Question 16 3 / 3 pts What are the genetic events that can lead to cancer? Select all that apply. Correct! Gene amplification Pleomorphism Correct! Point mutation Seeding Correct! Chromosomal translocation Question 17 4 / 4 pts List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module. Your Answer: 1. heredity 2. environmental agents 3. radiation 4. cancer-causing viruses Heredity, hormonal factors, obesity, immunologic mechanisms, environmental agents such as chemicals, radiation, and cancer-causing viruses. Question 18 5 / 10 pts 1. is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites. 2. The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as . Your Answer: 1. Chemotherapy 2. Wasting 1. chemotherapy 2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome Question 19 3.5 / 3.5 pts Which of the following are risk factors for developing cancer? Select all that apply. Correct! HBV Correct! Alcohol Correct! High intake of smoked meats Deodorant Question 20 3.5 / 3.5 pts All of the following viral agents are correctly paired with the associated lesion except: Human papillomavirus (HPV): genital warts Correct! Epstein-Barr virus: carcinoma of the cervix Epstein Barr is linked to Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal cancer. Cervical carcinoma is linked to HPV. Hepatitis B virus: hepatocellular carcinoma Human herpes virus-8: Kaposi sarcoma Question 21 3 / 3 pts List one example of screening for each method: observation, palpation, and lab test/procedure: Your Answer: Observation: skin Palpation: breast Lab test: Pap smear Observation: skin, mouth, external genitalia Palpation: breast, thyroid, rectum and anus, prostate, lymph nodes Laboratory tests and procedures: Pap smear, colonoscopy, mammography MODULE 3 Question 1 5 / 5 pts Short answer Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders. Your Answer: Diagnosing is made by history, physical, and serological findings. Since some blood tests are more generic, results can be imprecise. Markers can be elevated in the presence of other diseases.Criteria for diagnosis: Evidence of an autoimmune reaction, immunological findings are not second to other conditions, and no other causes are found. There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn’t perfect either, as some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases. Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which type of immunity is characterized by the development of a specific response to an antigen? Innate immunity Correct! Adaptive immunity Autoimmunity Active immunity Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: What allows the lymphocyte to differentiate between self and foreign molecules? Antigen presenting cells Regulatory cells Correct! Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule Effector cells Question 4 0 / 3 pts T lymphocytes produce what type of immunity? Your Answer: Adaptive immunity Cell-mediated Question 5 2 / 2 pts Multiple Choice: Which immunoglobulin passes immune factors from the mother to the fetus? IgM IgA Correct! IgG IgD IgE Question 6 2 / 2 pts Multiple Choice: Which cell type is an early responder and the most abundant in the body? Lymphocytes Eosinophils Basophils Correct! Neutrophils Question 7 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which is NOT a finding consistent with Graves’ disease? Exophthalmos Correct! Hypothyroidism hyperthyroidism Goiter Corneal ulceration Question 8 10 / 10 pts A 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) What symptoms might he present with? (2) Does the quantity of exposure mean he will have a more severe reaction? (3) What is the initial immediate treatment? (4) What are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always carry? Your Answer: 1) shortness of breath, skin redness/hives , abdominal cramping 2) quantity of the exposure does NOT play role on how severe the reaction can be 3) elimination of the food and EpiPen (epiniphereine) 4) carry 2 EpiPens (1) Any of the following reactions are accepted. Grade I: erythema and urticaria, with or without angioedema. Grade II: hypotension, tachycardia, dyspnea, and GI manifestations, like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping from mucosal edema. Grade III: bronchospasm, cardiac dysrhythmias, and cardiac collapse. Grade IV: cardiac arrest (2) No (3) Epinephrine (4) identification about allergy, EpiPen Question 9 3.5 / 3.5 pts True/False: Following a heart attack, the area of heart muscle that has undergone necrosis because of lack of blood supply will heal by scar tissue replacement. Correct! True False Question 10 3 / 3 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a classic manifestation of acute inflammation with its corresponding cause? Rubor – vasodilation Correct! Dolor – inflammatory cells infiltrating sensory nerves In acute inflammation, dolor (pain) is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in tissues and by chemical mediators. Calor – increased blood flow Tumor – exudation of fluid and cells into extravascular tissues Question 11 3.5 / 3.5 pts True/False: Lymphocytes are categorized as either granulocytes or agranulocytes. True Correct! False false, leukocytes Question 12 3 / 3 pts True/False: Passive immunity is achieved through immunization. True Correct! False false, active immunity Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: B lymphocytes normally produce antibodies against host tissues. True Correct! False Question 14 3.5 / 3.5 pts Antibodies are also known as ? Your Answer: immunoglobulins immunoglobulins Question 15 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions can be treated with the administration of epinephrine? Correct! Type I Type II Type III Type IV Question 16 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which cell is NOT part of the adaptive immune response? Correct! Monocytes Lymphocytes Antigen presenting cells Effector cells Question 17 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: The body’s ability to distinguish self from nonself is termed what? Autoantibodies Positive selection Correct! Self-tolerance Anergy Question 18 5 / 5 pts Short answer: What are autoantibodies? Your Answer: In autoimmune diseases, the immune sustem loses its ability to recognize self and produces autoantibodies, which act against host tissues Answer: In many autoimmune diseases, the immune system loses its ability to recognize self and produces what is called autoantibodies, which act against host tissues. Question 19 10 / 10 pts Short answer A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an H&P and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man’s CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/μL and his viral load is 250,000 copies/mL. (1) Why did the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and symptomatology, and why? Your Answer: 1) PCP is a lung infection that affects people with weakened immune systems, such as those infected with HIV. It is listed as an opportunistic infection. 2) Overt AIDS. Patient's CD4+ cell count is below 200 cells/uL. Patient also presented with an AIDSdefining illness, such as PCP. (1) Opportunistic infections are those common organisms that do not produce infection without impaired immune function. (2) The last phase, or AIDS illness, occurs when the CD4+ cell count falls to less than 200 cells/μL or exhibits an AIDS-defining illness. The risk of opportunistic infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell count falls below 200 cells/μL. Question 20 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which process is NOT included in wound healing? Inflammatory Proliferative Correct! Acute-phase response Remodeling Question 21 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following cells is a permanent cell? Epidermal cell True Hepatocyte Intestinal mucosal cell Correct! Neuron Renal tubular cell Question 22 3.5 / 3.5 pts Fill in the blank As the CD4 T cell count decreases, the body becomes susceptible to . Your Answer: opportunistic infections Answer: opportunistic infections Question 23 3.5 / 3.5 pts The term to describe the time when an infected person’s blood converts from being negative for HIV antibodies to being positive is called what? Your Answer: Seroconversion Answer: seroconversion Question 24 3.5 / 3.5 pts True/False: A person with HIV is not infectious when they are asymptomatic. True Correct! False Question 25 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: The T cells that display the host’s MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed positive selection. Correct! False Question 26 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: The process of leukocyte accumulation in the cellular phase of acute inflammation is called what? You Answered Adhesion Transmigration Chemotaxis Correct Answer Margination Question 27 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which lab value will typically be increased in a viral infection? Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Correct! Lymphocytes MODULE 4 Question 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following increases the chance of clotting? Select all that apply. Vitamin K deficiency Von Willebrand factor deficiency Correct! Protein C deficiency Thrombocytopenia Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply. Correct! Protein C Correct! Protein S Factor II Factor VII Factor IX Factor X Correct! Antithrombin III Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply. Hemophilia A Correct! Congestive heart failure Correct! Smoking Thrombocytopenia Correct! Postsurgical state Question 4 0 / 2.5 pts Which of the following is FALSE of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Select all that apply. Microthrombi cause vessel occlusion and tissue ischemia You Answered It can cause multiple organ failure Severe hemorrhage results Obstetric disorders are the main cause of DIC Correct! Lab results show a decreased PT, PTT Question 5 2.5 / 2.5 pts Well-known causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) include each of the following conditions except: Retained dead fetus Carcinoma Gram-negative sepsis Correct! Heparin administration Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following does NOT affect the heart’s ability to increase its output? Preload Afterload Cardiac contractility Correct! Cardiac reserve Heart rate Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following is NOT a regulator of blood pressure? Baroreceptors