Solutions
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the coding of complications?
a) The physician has to use the word 'complication'.
b) The coder cannot code complications based on OASIS responses, such as not healing wound.
c) The physician must indicate in his/her documentation an unexpected or abnormal occurrence
d) There must be a documented relationship between the condition and the care. a) The
physician has to use the word 'complication'.
An elderly female had asked her son to take her walking through her large flower garden that she
used to keep. She commented how it was "grown-up" with weeds. The evening after her walk,
she developed an intense itching on her right ankle. She put lotion on it, and went to bed that
evening. When she awoke the next morning, her bilateral lower extremities were covered in red
blisters, and were itching. She went to see the physician since she has diagnoses of DM and
PVD. Upon examination, it is determined she has allergic contact dermatitis with
hypersensitivity from poison oak and prescribes her a high dose Medrol dose pak. Home Health
is to monitor for infection of the open wound areas, and monitor blood sugar related to the
prednisone pack. How would this be coded?
,a) L23.7, E11.51
b) S91.001D, E11.9, I73.89
c) L23.7, S91.001D, E11.51, Z79.5
d) L23.7, E11.9, I73.9, Z79.52 a) L23.7, E11.51
*The allergic contact dermatitis is coded first. Her diabetes and PVD (PVD is arterial) are
assumed related and are impacting the POC. Long term use steroids (impacting the diabetes) is
not coded because the dose pack would not be considered long term.
If the neoplasm is resolved, the code for the neoplasm may be placed in M1025 across from the
Z code for aftercare.
a) True
b) False a) true
*The patient had a fracture of the left tibia/fibula 7 months ago. X ray results indicate a healed
fracture with remodeling. The physician documents that as a result of the fracture, he now has a
,shortened Achilles tendon and is unable to place the left foot all the way to floor. PT and OT are
ordered. How should this be coded?
a) S82.202D, S82.402D, M67.02. The shortened Achilles tendon is a symptom of the fractures so
it is coded after the fractures.
b) M67.02. The fractures are healed and resolved conditions should not be coded.
c) M67.02, S82.202S, S82.402S. The shortened Achilles tendon is a sequela of the fractures.
d) S82.202S, S82.402S M67.02. The shortened Achilles tendon is a sequela of the fractures.
c) M67.02, S82.202S, S82.402S. The shortened Achilles tendon is a sequela of the
fractures.
**A residual condition after the original injury has healed is considered a sequela. The shortened
tendon is coded first followed by the original injury with an S as the 7th character.
The patient has a bloodstream infection related to a central line that has resulted in sepsis by
Staph aureus. IV antibiotics are ordered. The correct coding is:
a) T80.211A, A41.01, Z45.2, Z79.2
b) T80.219A, A41.01, Z45.2, Z79.2
c) A41.01, T80.211A, Z45.2, Z79.2
, d) A41.01, T80.219D, Z45.2, Z79.2 a) T80.211A, A41.01, Z45.2, Z79.2
The patient has influenza with H. Influenzae pneumonia and myocarditis. He also has COPD.
How would you code this?
a) J11.1, J14, J44.1, I40.0
b) J11.08, J14, J11.82, J44.9
c) J44.0, J14, J11.08, I51.4
d) J44.0, J11.1, J11.00 b) J11.08, J14, J11.82, J44.9
72 year old male has a flare of gout in his right foot. He has a history of frequent UTI, diabetic
neuropathy, and benign hypertension. He also has frequent kidney stones as the result of the
gout, and the MD states these are a chronic problem. How would this be coded?
a) M1A.071, E11.40, I10, N22, Z87.440
b) M10.071, N22, E11.40, I10, Z87.440
c) M10.071, N20.2, E11.40, I10, Z87.442
d) M1A.071, E11.40, I10 b) M10.071, N22, E11.40, I10, Z87.440