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Pathopharm Exam 4 | Questions with 100% Correct Answers

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Pathopharm Exam 4 | Questions with 100% Correct Answers which part of the renal system does furosemide exerts its effects? a. distal tubule b. collecting duct c. glomerulus of the nephron d. loop of henle which nursing action is a priority before administering prescribed furosemide? a. weigh the client b. assess skin turgor c. review the potassium level results d. check the 24-hour intake and output which intervention is indicated as initial treatment for a client who had a hemorrhoidectomy? Select all that apply a. giving an enema b. applying moist heat c. administering stool softeners d. encouraging sitz baths e. providing occlusive dressings to the area the provider has ordered endocrine testing for a client. arrange the steps to be followed for the urine specimen collection in the correct sequence. a. empty bladder at the end of the timed period and add urine to the collection b. the timing for the urine collection begins after this specimen c. note the time d. empty the bladder and discard the urine d, b, c, a which information would the nurse include when teaching about why women are more susceptible to urinary tract infections than men? a. inadequate fluid intake b. poor hygienic practices c. the length of the urethra d. the disruption of mucous membranes a client is admitted with a head injury and has large amounts of clear, colorless urine draining from the urinary catheter. which physiological response is possibly causing the increased urine output? a. increased serum glucose b. deficient renal perfusion c. inadequate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion d. excess amount of intravenous (IV) fluid which condition is the most important for the nurse to assess for in a client admitted to the hospital for acute gastritis and ascites secondary to alcohol use and cirrhosis? a. nausea b. blood in the stool c. food intolerances d. hourly urinary output which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate initiating for a client with a Clostridium difficile- associated disease (CDAD)? Select all that apply a. penicillin b. fidaxomicin c. ciprofloxacin d. metroidazole e. vancomycin which prescribed medication will the nurse administer to ensure a bowel movement before discharge for a client who has not had a bowel movement since before surgery, which was 4 days ago? a. lactulose b. docusate sodium c. bisacodyl suppository d. psyllium which action will a nurse take when a male client receiving prolonged steroid therapy complains of always being thirsty and urinating frequently? a. have the client assessed for an enlarged prostate b. obtain a urine specimen for the client to test for ketonuria c. perform a finger stick to test the client's blood glucose level d. assess the client's lower extremities for the presence of pitting edema which factor would the nurse assess for a client reporting constipation? Select all that apply a. diet b. fluid intake c. use of laxatives d. date of last bowel movement e. use of opioid pain medications which principle explains how loop diuretics promote diuresis? a. osmosis b. filtration c. diffusion d. active transport which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of docusate sodium? a. lubricates the feces b. creates an osmotic effect c. stimulates motor activity d. softens the feces which statement is important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan of a client with irritable bowel syndrome who has instructions to take psyllium for constipation? a. "urine may be discolored" b. " stop taking the laxative once a bowel movement occurs" c. " each dose should be taken with a full glass of water or juice" d. "daily use may inhibit the absorption of some fat-soluble vitamins" for which condition is an adult client with a weakened urinary sphincter at risk? a. bladder distention b. skin irritation c. tendency to fall d. urinary retention which medication is the first-line medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who is diagnosed with a Clostridium difficle infection? a. rifaximin b. fidaxomicin c. vancomycin d. metronidazole which medication would the nurse identify as a risk factor for straining due to constipation in a client with a myocardial infarction receiving digoxin. fluoxetine, morphine, and docusate sodium? a. digoxin b. morphine c. docusate d. fluoxetine which dietary instruction would be a beneficial to a client who has undergone a hypophysectomy and has difficulty passing stools? a. "drink plenty of water" b. "eat foods rich in protein" c. " drink a glass of milk daily" d. "eat foods rich in carbohydrates" which treatment strategy would the nurse conclude is the cause of the diarrhea several days after a health care provider prescribes bed rest, loperamide, and esomeprazole for a client who just had major surgery? a. loperamide b. esomeprazole c. bed rest d. diet alteration which lifestyle advice does the nurse give to a client when oral digoxin therapy is initiated? Select all that apply a. bran can decrease digoxin absorption b. digoxin should not be taken with hawthorn supplements c. ginseng may cause a dangerous increase in digoxin levels in the blood d. St. john’s wort can increase digoxin levels in the blood e. medications that lower serum potassium or magnesium can worsen digoxin toxicity which rationale will the nurse provide to a client with Chron's disease who asks why the prescribed vitamins have to be given intravenously (IV) rather than by mouth? Select all that apply a. "they provide more rapid action results" b. "they decrease colon irritability" c. "oral vitamins are less effective" d. " intestinal absorption may be inadequate" e. "allergic responses are less likely to occur" which finding for a client with pulmonary edema who received furosemide is the best indicator that the treatment has been effective? a. urine output over 1 hour is 200 mL b. oxygen saturation per pulse oximetry is 99% c. cardiac monitor shows sinus rhythm, rate 98 beats/minute d. no jugular vein distention is seen with head elevated to 90 degrees which suggestion would the nurse provide to the parent whose child has been constipated for 3 days? Select all that apply a. give laxatives to the child b. reduce the child's fluid intake c. include dairy products in the child's diet daily d. increase the child's physical activity e. include food with a high fiber content in the child's diet the nurse is teaching a group of adults about the signs and symptoms of colorectal cancer. which common clinical manifestations would the nurse include in the teaching program? Select all that apply a. anemia b. rectal pain c. rectal bleeding d. change in bowel habits e. severe abdominal pain which statement indicates family understanding of age-related changes and required care after family members received discharge instructions for an older adult male recovering from a urinary tract infection? a. "I place a small glass of water at his side to ensure sipping before bedtime" b. "I respond immediately with the urinal whenever he indicates a need to void" c. "I provide privacy and standby assistance to help him void." d. "I encourage him to use the urinal at least every 2 hours during the day" which condition would the nurse suspect in a client who complains of nocturia, bladder pain, urinary frequency, urgency, and dribbling at the end of urination with a digital rectal examination report indicating smooth, firm, and enlarged prostate tissue surrounding the urethra? a. prostatitis b. paraphimosis c. prostate cancer d. benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) which clinical manifestation would the nurse associate with benign prostatic hyperplasia? a. perineal edema b. urethral discharge c. flank pain radiating to the groin d. distention of the lower abdomen why is blood glucose self-monitoring preferred over urine glucose testing? a. blood glucose monitoring is more accurate b. blood glucose monitoring is easier to perform c. blood glucose monitoring is done by the client d. blood glucose monitoring is not influenced by medications which action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with heart failure who has gained 20 pounds in 3 weeks? Select all that apply a. diuretics b. low-salt diet c. daily weight checks d. fluid restriction e. intake and output f. oxygen administration the nurse administers vasopressin to a client and recalls that the medication is which type of hormone? a. growth hormone b. luteinizing hormone c. antidiuretic hormone d. thyroid-stimulating hormone which mechanism of action explains how diuretics reduce blood pressure? a. they facilitate vasodilation b. they promotes smooth muscle relaxation c. they reduce the circulating blood volume d. they block the sympathetic nervous system which mechanism would a nurse recall when caring for a client prescribed bisacodyl for constipation? a. producing bulk b. softening feces c. lubricating feces d. stimulating peristalsis a client who has a cesarean birth is unable to void 3 hours after the removal of an indwelling catheter. how would the nurse evaluate the client for bladder distention? a. by catheterizing the client for residual urine b. by palpating the client's suprapubic area gently c. by asking the client whether she still feels the urge to urinate d. by determining whether the client is experiencing suprapubic pain which new prescription will the nurse question when reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea? a. oral psyllium b. oral potassium supplement c. intravenous normal saline d. magnesium citrate which manifestations are exhibited with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone? a. increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hypotension b. hyperkalemia and poor skin turgor c. hyponatremia and decreased urine output d. polyuria and increased specific gravity of urine which structure surrounding the male urethra would the nurse describe to a client scheduled for a dilation of the urethra? a. epididymis b. prostate gland c. seminal vesicle d. bulbourethral gland an older client is admitted to the hospital for rehydration therapy after 3 days of diarrhea. in addition to sodium, which electrolyte would the nurse be most concerned about? a. calcium b. chlorides c. potassium d. phosphates which prescription by the health care provider would the nurse question when caring for a client who is hospitalized for an acute myocardial infarction? a. long-acting beta blocker b. daily low-dose aspirin c. H 1 blocker to reduce gastric acid secretions d. rectal suppository as needed for constipation which statement is important for the nurse to teach a client prescribed psyllium 3.5g twice a day for constipation? a. "urine may be discolored" b. "each dose should be taken with a full glass of water" c. "use only when necessary because it can cause dependence" d. "daily use may inhibit the absorption of some fat-soluble vitamins" the nurse provides education related to manifestations of hyperglycemia to a client with type 1 diabetes. which signs and symptoms, identified by the client, indicate that the teaching was effective? Select all that apply a. thirst b. headache c. nervousness d. fruity breath odor e. excessive urination which action would the nurse take in a client who takes rifampin who tells the nurse, "my urine looks orange"? a. explain that this is expected b. check the liver enzymes c. ask the provider to order a urinalysis d. ask what foods were eaten which type of urinary condition would cholinergic agonists be prescribed for? a. kidney stones b. urine retention c. spastic bladder d. urinary tract infections how does sodium biphosphate, prescribed for a client before a colonoscopy, accomplish its therapeutic effect? a. irritates the intestinal mucosa b. provides water-absorbing bulk c. softens stool by exerting a detergent effect d. increases osmotic pressure in the intestines a client tells the nurse about recent recurrent episodes of bleeding hemorrhoids. which instruction would the nurse provide to the client to help prevent future hemorrhoidal episodes? a. exercise to improve circulation b. eat bland foods and avoid spices c. consume a high-fiber diet and drink adequate water d. use laxatives to avoid constipation and use of the valsalva maneuver which factor may contribute to a client developing urinary calculi? a. increased fluid intake b. urine specific gravity of 1.017 c. jogging 3 miles (4.8 km) a day d. history of hyperparathyroidism which test would the nurse check to determine whether a transplanted kidney is functioning? a. white blood cell (WBC) cell count b. renal ultrasound c. serum creatinine level d. 24-hour urinary output which genitourinary factor contributes to urinary incontinence in older adult clients and needs to be considered by the nurse when planning the care for these clients? a. sensory deprivation b. urinary tract infection c. frequent use of diuretics d. inaccessibility of a bathroom which nursing intervention would help an older adult experiencing urinary incontinence? Select all that apply a. provide nutritional support b. provide voiding opportunities c. avoid indwelling catheterization d. provide beverages and snacks frequently e. promote measures to prevent skin breakdown which rationale explains the purpose of administering diphenoxylate hydrochloride to clients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. to manage pain b. to manage diarrhea c. to manage candidal esophagitis d. to manage behavioral problems which hormonal deficiency causes diabetes insipidus in a client? a. prolactin b. thyrotropin c. luteinizing hormone d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) which action by the nurse would be best when a client who has been admitted with pulmonary edema and received furosemide intravenously needs to void? a. place the client on a bedpan b. use adult diapers for the client c. help the client walk to the bathroom d. assist the client to a bedside commode which intervention would the nurse implement when providing care for an older adult male client who is immobile and incontinent of urine? a. restrict the client's fluid intake b. regularly offer the client a urinal c. apply incontinence pants d. insert an indwelling urinary catheter which finding indicates that a client is at an increased risk for colorectal cancer? Select all that apply a. presence of dark, tarry stools b. family history of polyposis c. 20-year history of ulcerative colitis d. unintentional 20-pound weight loss e. change in bowel pattern for 3 months the nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and renal insufficiency. the client is scheduled for a computerized tomography scan with contrast. which medication would the nurse withhold to prevent lactic acidosis? a. pioglitazone b. insulin c. glyburide d. metformin which electrolyte deficiency triggers the secretion of renin? a. sodium b. calcium c. chloride d. potassium the nurse observes that a client's urine has a sweet fruity odor. which information is important to evaluate when performing a further client assessment? a. vital signs b. fluid balance c. serum glucose level d. dietary calorie count which preventative would the nurse anticipate will be prescribed daily to avoid straining due to constipation for a client who has had a recent brain attack? a. stimulant laxatives such as bisacodyl b. tap-water enemas c. stool softener d. saline laxatives such as magnesium citrate which antidiarrheal medication would the nurse anticipate administering to a client with severe diarrhea who is prescribed intravenous fluids, sodium bicarbonate, and an antidiarrheal medication? a. psyllium b. bisacodyl c. loperamide d. docusate sodium which intravenous (IV) solution would a nurse anticipate administering when caring for a client with a history of severe diarrhea for the past 3 days who is admitted for dehydration? a. 3% sodium chloride b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. 5% dextrose and 0.9% sodium chloride d. 5% dextrose and lactated ringer solution Abdominal bloating and infrequent small hard stools after taking psyllium for 2 weeks. What is a priority action when taking psyllium? hydration; they aren't drinking enough water the nurse is teaching a female client that is child bearing age about spironolactone and trying to get pregnant. what statement indicates an understanding? a. take it at bedtime b. increase sodium c. decrease potassium d. call the provider if having menstrual irregularities A client on a cruise is prescribed scopolamine. what is the most common adverse effect? dry mouth give an example of a client who should not take an antidiarrheal. if they do not have bowel sounds individuals who have just had acute abdominal surgery what significant change with kidney change in aging? decreased glomerular filtration rate which type of laxative causes stool to absorb water and swell? bulk-forming potentials for laxative use: which statement by the client indicates understanding of teaching: a. laxative abuse causes fecal impaction b. can cause chronic constipation c. changes acid levels in stomach d. slows down or completely stops intestine enzymes List the actions in the order in which they will be performed by the nurse transfusing packed red blood cells prescribed for a client with anemia. 1. determine the clients vital signs 2. ensure that the client signed a consent for the transfusion 3. verify that the number on the blood product, laboratory record, and client arm band match 4. don a pair of clean gloves 5. initiate the transfusion slowly 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 which purpose would potassium chloride added to the intravenous solution of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis serve? a. treats hyperpnea b. prevents flaccid paralysis c. prevents hypokalemia d. treats cardiac dsyrhythmias which disease increases the risk of hyperkalemia? a. crohn disease b. cushing disease c. end-stage renal disease d. gastroesophageal reflux disease when assessing a client during the postoperative period of receiving a kidney transplant, the clients creatinine level is 3.1 mg/dL (260 mmol/L). which action would the nurse take first in response to this laboratory report? a. notify the primary health care provider b. obtain current blood test results c. assess for decreased urine output d. check the intravenous infusion which mechanism of action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of mannitol prescribed for a client with a head injury? a. decreasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid b. limiting the metabolic requirements of the brain c. drawing fluid from brain cells into the bloodstream d. preventing uncontrolled electrical discharges in the brain which concern when caring for a client prescribed furosemide 40 mg everyday in conjunction with digoxin would prompt the nurse to ask the health provider about potassium supplements? a. digoxin causes significant potassium depletion b. the liver destroys potassium as digoxin is detoxified c. lasix requires adequate serum potassium to promote diuresis d. digoxin toxicity occurs rapidly in the presence of hypokalemia which findings are consistent with hypercalcemia after prolonged immobility? Select all that apply a. bone pain b. convulsions c. muscle spasms d. tingling of extremities e. depressed deep tendon reflexes which action is important when administering blood? a. warm the blood to the body temperature to prevent chilling the client b. obtain baseline vital signs before beginning blood administration c. draw a blood sample from the client before each unit is transfused d. maintain patency of the intravenous catheter with dextrose solution which sign of hypokalemia will the nurse monitor for in a client receiving furosemide? a. Chvostek sign b. muscle weakness c. anxious behavior d. abdominal cramping which clinical finding is important for the nurse to monitor for when a total parental nutrition solution is prescribed to infuse at 1 liter every 12 hours? Select all that apply a. activity tolerance b. intake and output c. orthostatic vital signs d. glucose levels e. serum electrolytes which statement about administration of IV potassium would a nurse make to a client with a diagnosis of hypokalemia? a. oliguria is an indication for withholding IV potassium b. rapid infusion of potassium prevents burning at the IV site c. clients with severe deficits should be given IV push potassium d. average IV dosage of potassium should not exceed 60 mEq in 1 hour which data collection assessment would be performed to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide administered to a client with congestive heart failure? Select all that apply a. daily weight b. intake and output c. monitor for edema d. daily pulse oximetry e. auscultate breath sounds a client with renal failure receives prescriptions for vitamin D and calcium supplements. the client asks the nurse, 'why do i need to take these?' the nurse explains that, with renal failure, which condition exists? a. a decrease in the inactive forms of vitamin D in the body b. a decrease in the active metabolite of vitamin D in the body c. an increase in the conversion of skin cholesterol into vitamin D d. an increase in the vitamin D-associated intestinal absorption of calcium which principle explains how loop diuretics promote diuresis? a. osmosis b. filtration c. diffusion d. active transport the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a treatment for a client with excessive fluid volume. which clinical finding indicates that treatment was successful? a. clear breath sounds b. positive pedal pulses c. normal potassium level d. decreased urine specific gravity which pressure changes does the nurse determine to be the cause of edema for a client with albuminuria? a. decrease in tissue hydrostatic pressure b. increase in plasma hydrostatic pressure c. increase in tissue colloid osmotic pressure d. decrease in plasma colloid oncotic pressure which clinical finding leads the nurse to conclude that an IV has infiltrated rather than caused inflammation? a. pain b. coolness c. localized swelling d. cessation in flow of solution when evaluating fluid loss for a client with burns, which relationship between a client's burned body surface area and fluid loss would the nurse consider? a. equal b. unrelated c. inversely related d. directly proportional when a client in the emergency department has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, weak quality radial pulse of 108 beats/minute, and reports working outside for several hours on a hot day, which prescribed action would the nurse take first? a. complete a head-to-toe assessment b. start infusion of normal saline 500 mL c. ask the client about current medications d. obtain blood samples for laboratory testing which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client who has chronic kidney disease with hypocalcemia to exhibit? Select all that apply a. acidosis b. lethargy

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2024/2025
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Pathopharm Exam 4



which part of the renal system does furosemide exerts its effects?

a. distal tubule
b. collecting duct
c. glomerulus of the nephron
d. loop of henle

which nursing action is a priority before administering prescribed furosemide?

a. weigh the client
b. assess skin turgor
c. review the potassium level results
d. check the 24-hour intake and output

which intervention is indicated as initial treatment for a client who had a
hemorrhoidectomy? Select all that apply

a. giving an enema
b. applying moist heat
c. administering stool softeners
d. encouraging sitz baths
e. providing occlusive dressings to the area

the provider has ordered endocrine testing for a client. arrange the steps to be followed
for the urine specimen collection in the correct sequence.

a. empty bladder at the end of the timed period and add urine to the collection
b. the timing for the urine collection begins after this specimen
c. note the time
d. empty the bladder and discard the urine
d, b, c, a

which information would the nurse include when teaching about why women are more
susceptible to urinary tract infections than men?

a. inadequate fluid intake
b. poor hygienic practices
c. the length of the urethra
d. the disruption of mucous membranes

,a client is admitted with a head injury and has large amounts of clear, colorless urine
draining from the urinary catheter. which physiological response is possibly causing the
increased urine output?

a. increased serum glucose
b. deficient renal perfusion
c. inadequate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
d. excess amount of intravenous (IV) fluid

which condition is the most important for the nurse to assess for in a client admitted to
the hospital for acute gastritis and ascites secondary to alcohol use and cirrhosis?

a. nausea
b. blood in the stool
c. food intolerances
d. hourly urinary output

which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate initiating for a client with a
Clostridium difficile- associated disease (CDAD)? Select all that apply

a. penicillin
b. fidaxomicin
c. ciprofloxacin
d. metroidazole
e. vancomycin

which prescribed medication will the nurse administer to ensure a bowel movement
before discharge for a client who has not had a bowel movement since before surgery,
which was 4 days ago?

a. lactulose
b. docusate sodium
c. bisacodyl suppository
d. psyllium

which action will a nurse take when a male client receiving prolonged steroid therapy
complains of always being thirsty and urinating frequently?

a. have the client assessed for an enlarged prostate
b. obtain a urine specimen for the client to test for ketonuria
c. perform a finger stick to test the client's blood glucose level
d. assess the client's lower extremities for the presence of pitting edema

which factor would the nurse assess for a client reporting constipation? Select all that
apply

,a. diet
b. fluid intake
c. use of laxatives
d. date of last bowel movement
e. use of opioid pain medications

which principle explains how loop diuretics promote diuresis?

a. osmosis
b. filtration
c. diffusion
d. active transport

which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of docusate sodium?

a. lubricates the feces
b. creates an osmotic effect
c. stimulates motor activity
d. softens the feces

which statement is important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan of a client with
irritable bowel syndrome who has instructions to take psyllium for constipation?

a. "urine may be discolored"
b. " stop taking the laxative once a bowel movement occurs"
c. " each dose should be taken with a full glass of water or juice"
d. "daily use may inhibit the absorption of some fat-soluble vitamins"

for which condition is an adult client with a weakened urinary sphincter at risk?

a. bladder distention
b. skin irritation
c. tendency to fall
d. urinary retention

which medication is the first-line medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who
is diagnosed with a Clostridium difficle infection?

a. rifaximin
b. fidaxomicin
c. vancomycin
d. metronidazole

which medication would the nurse identify as a risk factor for straining due to
constipation in a client with a myocardial infarction receiving digoxin. fluoxetine,
morphine, and docusate sodium?

, a. digoxin
b. morphine
c. docusate
d. fluoxetine

which dietary instruction would be a beneficial to a client who has undergone a
hypophysectomy and has difficulty passing stools?

a. "drink plenty of water"
b. "eat foods rich in protein"
c. " drink a glass of milk daily"
d. "eat foods rich in carbohydrates"

which treatment strategy would the nurse conclude is the cause of the diarrhea several
days after a health care provider prescribes bed rest, loperamide, and esomeprazole for
a client who just had major surgery?

a. loperamide
b. esomeprazole
c. bed rest
d. diet alteration

which lifestyle advice does the nurse give to a client when oral digoxin therapy is
initiated? Select all that apply

a. bran can decrease digoxin absorption
b. digoxin should not be taken with hawthorn supplements
c. ginseng may cause a dangerous increase in digoxin levels in the blood
d. St. john’s wort can increase digoxin levels in the blood
e. medications that lower serum potassium or magnesium can worsen digoxin toxicity

which rationale will the nurse provide to a client with Chron's disease who asks why the
prescribed vitamins have to be given intravenously (IV) rather than by mouth? Select all
that apply

a. "they provide more rapid action results"
b. "they decrease colon irritability"
c. "oral vitamins are less effective"
d. " intestinal absorption may be inadequate"
e. "allergic responses are less likely to occur"

which finding for a client with pulmonary edema who received furosemide is the best
indicator that the treatment has been effective?

a. urine output over 1 hour is 200 mL
b. oxygen saturation per pulse oximetry is 99%

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