Certified DevOps Testing Professional Practice Exam
1. Which DevOps principle emphasizes the importance of collaboration between
development and operations teams?
A. Continuous Integration
B. Infrastructure as Code
C. Agile Testing
D. Collaboration Culture
Answer: D
Explanation: Collaboration culture is at the heart of DevOps, ensuring that development and
operations work closely together to streamline processes and improve quality.
2. What is the primary goal of continuous integration (CI) in DevOps?
A. Automate manual testing
B. Merge code changes frequently into a shared repository
C. Deploy applications into production
D. Monitor application performance
Answer: B
Explanation: Continuous integration aims to integrate code changes frequently, which helps in
detecting issues early and maintaining a stable codebase.
3. Which tool is commonly used for CI/CD automation in DevOps environments?
A. Photoshop
B. Jenkins
C. Excel
D. WordPress
Answer: B
Explanation: Jenkins is one of the most popular automation servers used to implement
continuous integration and continuous delivery pipelines.
4. In the context of DevOps testing, what does the term “shift-left” refer to?
A. Testing after deployment
B. Testing only on production environments
C. Moving testing earlier in the development process
D. Focusing on performance testing
Answer: C
Explanation: “Shift-left” means moving testing earlier in the software development lifecycle to
catch defects sooner and improve quality.
5. What is a key benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in testing environments?
A. It makes manual testing unnecessary
B. It automates the provisioning of test environments
C. It eliminates the need for version control
,D. It solely focuses on security testing
Answer: B
Explanation: IaC automates the setup and management of test environments, ensuring
consistency and reducing manual configuration errors.
6. Which of the following is a popular automated testing framework for web applications?
A. JUnit
B. Selenium
C. Kubernetes
D. Terraform
Answer: B
Explanation: Selenium is widely used for automating web browsers, making it a popular choice
for web application testing.
7. What does the “Red-Green-Refactor” cycle describe in Test-Driven Development
(TDD)?
A. The stages of performance testing
B. The steps for automating deployment
C. The process of writing a failing test, making it pass, and then refactoring
D. The color scheme used in DevOps dashboards
Answer: C
Explanation: In TDD, “Red-Green-Refactor” involves writing a test that fails (red), writing code
to pass the test (green), and then improving the code (refactor).
8. Which approach is best suited for early bug detection in a DevOps pipeline?
A. Post-deployment testing
B. Manual exploratory testing
C. Shift-left testing
D. End-user beta testing
Answer: C
Explanation: Shift-left testing integrates testing early in the development lifecycle, enabling early
detection of bugs and reducing overall costs.
9. What is the main advantage of automated tests in a CI/CD pipeline?
A. They replace the need for unit tests
B. They provide continuous feedback on code quality
C. They are only useful during final deployment
D. They eliminate the need for developers
Answer: B
Explanation: Automated tests in a CI/CD pipeline quickly provide feedback on the quality of
code, helping teams detect and fix issues as they arise.
10. Which of the following best describes Continuous Delivery (CD)?
A. The practice of integrating code frequently
B. The process of automatically deploying every code change into production
C. The ability to deploy software reliably at any time
,D. The manual release of software updates
Answer: C
Explanation: Continuous Delivery ensures that code is always in a deployable state, allowing
teams to release updates reliably and frequently.
11. In DevOps, what is the role of automated smoke tests?
A. To test only the database
B. To validate basic functionality after deployment
C. To conduct in-depth security analysis
D. To check UI design consistency
Answer: B
Explanation: Automated smoke tests are quick tests run after a build or deployment to ensure
that the most critical functionalities work properly.
12. Which of the following is an example of a performance testing tool?
A. JMeter
B. GitLab
C. Ansible
D. Selenium
Answer: A
Explanation: JMeter is widely used for load, stress, and performance testing of applications to
assess their responsiveness under various conditions.
13. What is the primary purpose of load testing in DevOps?
A. To ensure code quality
B. To simulate real-world user loads and assess system performance
C. To automate user interface checks
D. To validate API security
Answer: B
Explanation: Load testing simulates a high number of concurrent users to evaluate how well a
system performs under stress.
14. Which security testing tool is known for performing dynamic application security
testing (DAST)?
A. OWASP ZAP
B. Selenium
C. JUnit
D. Terraform
Answer: A
Explanation: OWASP ZAP is a popular tool for dynamic application security testing, helping
identify runtime vulnerabilities.
15. What does DevSecOps primarily aim to integrate into the DevOps process?
A. Manual testing
B. Security practices
C. Graphic design
, D. End-user surveys
Answer: B
Explanation: DevSecOps integrates security practices into every phase of the DevOps pipeline,
ensuring that security is considered from the start.
16. How does continuous testing differ from continuous integration?
A. Continuous testing focuses solely on manual tests
B. Continuous integration is about deploying to production
C. Continuous testing is the practice of running automated tests throughout the pipeline
D. Continuous integration ignores test results
Answer: C
Explanation: Continuous testing involves running automated tests at every stage of the CI/CD
pipeline to ensure that each code change meets quality standards.
17. Which term describes the process of automatically rolling back a deployment when a
test fails?
A. Blue-green deployment
B. Canary release
C. Automated rollback
D. Continuous deployment
Answer: C
Explanation: An automated rollback is triggered when tests detect an issue, ensuring that faulty
code is not promoted to production.
18. What is the significance of monitoring key performance indicators (KPIs) in a DevOps
environment?
A. They help identify user interface design flaws
B. They provide insights into system performance and test results
C. They are used exclusively for marketing purposes
D. They replace all manual tests
Answer: B
Explanation: Monitoring KPIs such as throughput, latency, and error rates gives teams real-time
insight into system performance and helps in proactive issue resolution.
19. Which tool is widely recognized for log aggregation and analysis in DevOps testing?
A. Splunk
B. Jenkins
C. Docker
D. GitLab
Answer: A
Explanation: Splunk aggregates and analyzes logs from multiple sources, providing insights into
system behavior and aiding in troubleshooting.
20. In a CI/CD pipeline, why is it important to incorporate automated test reporting
dashboards?
A. They reduce the need for monitoring tools
1. Which DevOps principle emphasizes the importance of collaboration between
development and operations teams?
A. Continuous Integration
B. Infrastructure as Code
C. Agile Testing
D. Collaboration Culture
Answer: D
Explanation: Collaboration culture is at the heart of DevOps, ensuring that development and
operations work closely together to streamline processes and improve quality.
2. What is the primary goal of continuous integration (CI) in DevOps?
A. Automate manual testing
B. Merge code changes frequently into a shared repository
C. Deploy applications into production
D. Monitor application performance
Answer: B
Explanation: Continuous integration aims to integrate code changes frequently, which helps in
detecting issues early and maintaining a stable codebase.
3. Which tool is commonly used for CI/CD automation in DevOps environments?
A. Photoshop
B. Jenkins
C. Excel
D. WordPress
Answer: B
Explanation: Jenkins is one of the most popular automation servers used to implement
continuous integration and continuous delivery pipelines.
4. In the context of DevOps testing, what does the term “shift-left” refer to?
A. Testing after deployment
B. Testing only on production environments
C. Moving testing earlier in the development process
D. Focusing on performance testing
Answer: C
Explanation: “Shift-left” means moving testing earlier in the software development lifecycle to
catch defects sooner and improve quality.
5. What is a key benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in testing environments?
A. It makes manual testing unnecessary
B. It automates the provisioning of test environments
C. It eliminates the need for version control
,D. It solely focuses on security testing
Answer: B
Explanation: IaC automates the setup and management of test environments, ensuring
consistency and reducing manual configuration errors.
6. Which of the following is a popular automated testing framework for web applications?
A. JUnit
B. Selenium
C. Kubernetes
D. Terraform
Answer: B
Explanation: Selenium is widely used for automating web browsers, making it a popular choice
for web application testing.
7. What does the “Red-Green-Refactor” cycle describe in Test-Driven Development
(TDD)?
A. The stages of performance testing
B. The steps for automating deployment
C. The process of writing a failing test, making it pass, and then refactoring
D. The color scheme used in DevOps dashboards
Answer: C
Explanation: In TDD, “Red-Green-Refactor” involves writing a test that fails (red), writing code
to pass the test (green), and then improving the code (refactor).
8. Which approach is best suited for early bug detection in a DevOps pipeline?
A. Post-deployment testing
B. Manual exploratory testing
C. Shift-left testing
D. End-user beta testing
Answer: C
Explanation: Shift-left testing integrates testing early in the development lifecycle, enabling early
detection of bugs and reducing overall costs.
9. What is the main advantage of automated tests in a CI/CD pipeline?
A. They replace the need for unit tests
B. They provide continuous feedback on code quality
C. They are only useful during final deployment
D. They eliminate the need for developers
Answer: B
Explanation: Automated tests in a CI/CD pipeline quickly provide feedback on the quality of
code, helping teams detect and fix issues as they arise.
10. Which of the following best describes Continuous Delivery (CD)?
A. The practice of integrating code frequently
B. The process of automatically deploying every code change into production
C. The ability to deploy software reliably at any time
,D. The manual release of software updates
Answer: C
Explanation: Continuous Delivery ensures that code is always in a deployable state, allowing
teams to release updates reliably and frequently.
11. In DevOps, what is the role of automated smoke tests?
A. To test only the database
B. To validate basic functionality after deployment
C. To conduct in-depth security analysis
D. To check UI design consistency
Answer: B
Explanation: Automated smoke tests are quick tests run after a build or deployment to ensure
that the most critical functionalities work properly.
12. Which of the following is an example of a performance testing tool?
A. JMeter
B. GitLab
C. Ansible
D. Selenium
Answer: A
Explanation: JMeter is widely used for load, stress, and performance testing of applications to
assess their responsiveness under various conditions.
13. What is the primary purpose of load testing in DevOps?
A. To ensure code quality
B. To simulate real-world user loads and assess system performance
C. To automate user interface checks
D. To validate API security
Answer: B
Explanation: Load testing simulates a high number of concurrent users to evaluate how well a
system performs under stress.
14. Which security testing tool is known for performing dynamic application security
testing (DAST)?
A. OWASP ZAP
B. Selenium
C. JUnit
D. Terraform
Answer: A
Explanation: OWASP ZAP is a popular tool for dynamic application security testing, helping
identify runtime vulnerabilities.
15. What does DevSecOps primarily aim to integrate into the DevOps process?
A. Manual testing
B. Security practices
C. Graphic design
, D. End-user surveys
Answer: B
Explanation: DevSecOps integrates security practices into every phase of the DevOps pipeline,
ensuring that security is considered from the start.
16. How does continuous testing differ from continuous integration?
A. Continuous testing focuses solely on manual tests
B. Continuous integration is about deploying to production
C. Continuous testing is the practice of running automated tests throughout the pipeline
D. Continuous integration ignores test results
Answer: C
Explanation: Continuous testing involves running automated tests at every stage of the CI/CD
pipeline to ensure that each code change meets quality standards.
17. Which term describes the process of automatically rolling back a deployment when a
test fails?
A. Blue-green deployment
B. Canary release
C. Automated rollback
D. Continuous deployment
Answer: C
Explanation: An automated rollback is triggered when tests detect an issue, ensuring that faulty
code is not promoted to production.
18. What is the significance of monitoring key performance indicators (KPIs) in a DevOps
environment?
A. They help identify user interface design flaws
B. They provide insights into system performance and test results
C. They are used exclusively for marketing purposes
D. They replace all manual tests
Answer: B
Explanation: Monitoring KPIs such as throughput, latency, and error rates gives teams real-time
insight into system performance and helps in proactive issue resolution.
19. Which tool is widely recognized for log aggregation and analysis in DevOps testing?
A. Splunk
B. Jenkins
C. Docker
D. GitLab
Answer: A
Explanation: Splunk aggregates and analyzes logs from multiple sources, providing insights into
system behavior and aiding in troubleshooting.
20. In a CI/CD pipeline, why is it important to incorporate automated test reporting
dashboards?
A. They reduce the need for monitoring tools
