IPC Review Test Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+

IPC Review Test Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+ Personal documents required for flight: - Answer: - Pilot certificate - Medical certificate - Authorized photo ID (passport, driver's license, etc) - Restricted radiotelephone operator license (for flights outside the U.S.) Aircraft documents required for flight: - Answer: Aircraft documents required for flight: A- Airworthiness certificate R-Registration certificate R-Radio station license (for international flights) O-Operating limitations & AFM W-Weight & Balance data Aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR: - Answer: A-Annual inspection every 12 cal. Months V-VOR every 30 days I-100 hour inspection A-Altimeter, altitude reporting and static system every 24 cal. months T-Transponder every 24 months E-ELT every 12 months Preflight info required for IFR: (§91.103) - Answer: W- Weather reports and forecasts. K- Known traffic delays as advised by ATC. R- Runway length of intended use. A- Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed as planned. F- Fuel requirements T- Takeoff and landing performance data. Preflight self-assessment: - Answer: I- Illness M- Medication S- Stress A- Alcohol ("8 hours bottle to throttle"; no more than .04% of alcohol in blood) F- Fatigue E- Emotion Risk management & personal minimums - Answer: (PAVE) Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures Instrument PIC recency of experience: - Answer: Last 6 calendar months (under actual/simulated instrument or Flight Training Device/simulator, in the same aircraft category), logged: ("6 HITS") - 6 instrument approaches. - Holding procedures & tasks. - Intercept & Track courses through the use of electronic navigation Systems. To carry passengers as PIC - Answer: - b 3 takeoffs and landings in last 90 days in the same category, class and type (if type rating required). - At periods between 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise: 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop during 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise in the last 90 days When is an IFR flight plan required? - Answer: Before entering controlled airspace under IFR (clearance also required) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) - Answer: - Only provides obstruction clearance. - May be flown without an ATC clearance unless a SID or other instructions are assigned. (e.g. radar vectors) - Graphic ODP denote "Obstacle" in the chart title. Standard Instrument Departures (SID) - Answer: - Provide obstruction clearance and helps reducing radio congestion and workload by simplifying ATC clearances. - Pilot NAV SIDs - Pilot navigates by charted routes with minimal radio instructions. - Vector SIDs -Navigation is based on radar vectors. Routes are not printed on the chart. - File "NO SIDs" in the remarks of your flight plan if you choose not to use them. Standard Terminal Arrivals (STAR) - Answer: - Serves as a transition from the en route structure to a point from which an approach can begin. - Transitions routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure. - Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins. Your Instrument currency lapses now what? - Answer: - Not current looking back 6 months? You can still log the requirements (6 HITS) and get current with a safety pilot, instructor or pilot examiner. - The safety pilot must be at least a private pilot with the appropriate category and class. When using a safety pilot, the aircraft must have dual-control system. - Looking back 12 cal. months not current? You need an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) Do you need an alternate? - Answer: 1-2-3 rule? If within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA forecasted weather is less then: 2000 ft ceiling and/or 3 SM visibility you need an alternate! minimum weatger conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate: - Answer: Precision approach: 600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility Non-precision approach: (must be other than non-WAAS GPS) 800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility No instrument approach at the alternate: ceiling & visibility allowing descent from MEA, approach and landing under basic VFR. Clearance void time - Answer: - The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart. "Hold for release" - Answer: You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure Release time - Answer: The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) - Answer: A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT Mandatory reports under IFR - Answer: missed approach airspeed +- 10kt or 5% changed of filed TAS reaching a holding fix vfr on top *eta change +- 3 minutes leaving a holding fix or point *outer marker unforecasted weather safety of flight vacating an altitude *final approach fix radio or nav failure *compulsory reporting points 500 unable climb or decent 500fpm //*only in non radar enviroment// Position Report Items - Answer: •Identification •Position •Time •Altitude or flight level •Type of flight plan (not required in IFR position reports made directly to ARTCCs or approach control) •ETA and name of next reporting point •The name only of the next succeeding reporting point along the route of flight •Pertinent remarks IFR takeoff minimums (§91.175) - Answer: IFR takeoff minimums (§91.175) No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations. Part 121, 125, 129, 135: Prescribed T/O minimums for specific runway, or, if none: 1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility Holding pattern timing - Answer: - Adjust the outbound leg so the inbound leg takes: o At or below 14,000' MSL - 1 minute o Above 14,000' MSL - 1.5 minutes - DME/GPS holds - fly the outbound leg to the specified distance from the fix/waypoint. Max holding speeds - Answer: 0-6000 MSL-200KTS MSL- 230 KTS Above 14000 MSL-265 KTS DA/H - Answer: descent altitude/height MAA - Answer: maximum authorized altitude MCA - Answer: Minimum Crossing Altitude MDA/H - Answer: Minimum Descent Altitude/Height MEA - Answer: Minimum Enroute Altitude MOCA - Answer: Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude MORA - Answer: Minimum Off-Route Altitude MRA - Answer: Minimum Reception Altitude: lowest altitude at which intersection can be determined OROCA - Answer: Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude: obstruction clearance by 1000 ft in non-mountainous terrain (2000 ft in mountainous terrain). May not provide signal coverage from ground-based navaids, ATC radar, or communications coverage. Lost communication procedures - Answer: MEA - fly the highest of... - Minimum altitude persribed for IFR - Expected - Assigned AVEF select route by... -Assigned -Vectored -Expected -Filed Do not fly Procedure turn when - Answer: SHARPTT -Straight in approach -Holding in lieu of a procedure turn -Arc -Radar vectored to final -P NO PT depicted on chart -Timed approach -Teardrop course reversal Instrument approach types - Answer: Precision - ILS - PAR Non-precision - VOR - NDB - RNAV (LNAV) - LOC - LDA (Localizer Directional Aid, a localizer thats not aligned with the runway) - ASR (approach Surveillance Radar) APV (approach with vertical guidance) - RNAV (LNAV/VNAV) - LDA w/ glide slope When can you descend below MDA/DA? - Answer: All three conditions must be met: 1. a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal manuevers 2. Flight visibility is not less than the minimums published 3. at least one of the following visual references must be identified -The approach light system,except you may descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible -The threshold -The threshold markings -The threshold lights -The runway end identifier lights -The visual approach slope indicator -The touchdown zone or its markings -The touchdown zone lights -The runway or runway markings -The runway lights When can you descend to next instrument approach segment? - Answer: When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route. Standard rate turn angle of bank calculation - Answer: TAS/10 +5 3 degrees per second 360 degrees in 2 min Contact Approach - Answer: Must be specifically requested by the pilot.(It cannot be initiated by ATC) o Requires at least 1SM reported ground visibility and the aircraft to remain clear of clouds. o Available only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures. Visual approach - Answer: o Initiated by either ATC or the pilot. o Requires at least 1000' ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR under VMC) o Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight Minimum equipment for day VFR - Answer: 91.205 minimum equipment for night VFR - Answer: FLAPS Fuses Landing light (for hire) Anticolision light Position Light Source of power Minimum equipment for IFR day - Answer: VFR day + GRABCARD Generator/altanator Radios Altimeter (adjustiable/sensitve) Ball (slip/skid) Attitude indicator Rate of turn indicator Directorial gyro Operation with inop equipment or instruments - Answer: Standard VOR Service Altatudes - Answer: Termanal 1,000ft - 12,000ft @ 25nm Low 1,000-18,000ft @ 40nm High - ,000-14,500 @ 40nm - 14,500-18,000 @ 100nm -FL180-FL450 @ 130nm - FL450-FL600 @ 100nm VOR Limitations - Answer: cone of confusion reverse sensing (if used wrong) line of sight VOR checks - Answer: VOT +/- 4 Repair Station +/- 4 VOR Ground Checkpoint +/- 4 VOR Airborne checkpoint +/- 6 Doual VOR +/- 4 VOR check signoff - Answer: 91.171 What is a VOR? - Answer: Very High Frequency Omni-directional Range. - Operates within the 108.0 to 117.95 megahertz VHF band. - Full scare deflection 10° - distance offcourece = 200ft*NM from station GNSS - Answer: Global Navigation Satellite System Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) - Answer: Indicated airspeed corrector for installation and instrument errors. True Airspeed (TAS) - Answer: -"cloud speed" -calibrated airspeed corrected for temperature and pressure variations -Actual speed you are moving through the air Ground Speed (GS) - Answer: True Airspeed corrected for winds; actual speed of airplane over the ground. Static port blockage (VSI) - Answer: frozen in place Static port blockage (altimeter) - Answer: will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked Static port blockage (airspeed indicator) - Answer: Shows correct airspeed as long as you maintain the same altitude at which the blockage occurred. At higher altitudes airspeed will indicate lower than it should. At lower altitudes - higher than it should. Pitot blockage (ram air blocked) - Answer: airspeed will drop to zero Pitot blockage (Ram air & drain hole blocked) - Answer: act as an altimiter Magnetic Compass Errors - Answer: ANDS & UNOS Accelerate North Deccelerate South Undershoot North Overshoot South Convective SIGMET - Answer: Weather advisory concerning convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft, including thunderstorms, hail, and tornadoes. SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft? - Answer: All aircraft AIRMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft? - Answer: GA SIGMET - Answer: Significant meteorological information; issued for hazardous weather (other than conductive activity) which is considered significant for all aircraft; issued for severe icing and turbulence and CAT AIRMET Zulu - Answer: moderate icing and freezing level heights AIRMET Tango - Answer: moderate turbulence, surface winds of 30+ KIAS, nonconductive low-level wind shear TAFs - Answer: Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. Weather forecast for 5SM radius area around the station. Issued 4 times a day, every six hours and normally cover a 24 or 30 hour forecast period. TAF amendments (TAF AMD) supersede the previous TAF Conditions necessary for the formation of thunderstorms - Answer: Moisture, unstable laps rate, lifiting force cycle of a thunderstorm - Answer: cummulus stage, mature stage, dissipating stage fog - Answer: A cloud that begins within 50 ft of the surface. Occurs when the air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point, or when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air radiation fog - Answer: forms on cool, clear, calm nights when the earth's surface cools rapidly by radiation advection fog - Answer: a fog formed when warm, moist air is blown over a cool surface Ice fog - Answer: Occurs in cold weather when temperature is below freezing and water vapor sublimates directly as ice crystals. Same conditions as radiation frog, though colder (-25 deg C or colder). upslope fog - Answer: fog created when air moves up a slope and cools adiabatically steam fog - Answer: condensation of water vapor that results when cool air moves over warm water Structural ice - Answer: Two conditions for formation: 1.Visible moisture (clouds, fog, precipitation) 2. Aircraft surface temperature below freezing Clear Ice - Answer: most dangerous type. Heavy, hard and difficult to remove. Forms when water drops freeze slowly as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Usually occurs at temperatures close to the freezing point (-10° to 0° C) by large supercooled drops of water Rime ice - Answer: Opaque, white, rough ice formed by small supercooled water drops freezing quickly. Occurs at lower temperatures then clear ice does. Mixed ice - Answer: Mixture of clear and rime ice. Instrument ice - Answer: structural ice forming over aircraft instruments and sensors such as pitot and static Induction Ice - Answer: Ice reducing the amount of air for engine intake - Correct Ans: