NPTE Test Pool - Questions With Precise Solutions
What conditions are the abnormal heart sounds S3 and S4 associated with,
respectively?
A. S3 = MI or HTN; S4 =CHF
B. S3 = Tracheal Stenosis; S4 = Asthma
C. S3 = closure of Mitral and Tricuspid Valves; S4 = Closure of Pulmonary
Valves
D. S3 = CHF; S4 =MI or HTN Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - D
S3 is heard in early diastole (after S2) and is associated with CHF. S4 is heard
in late diastole (before S1) and is associated with an MI or hypertension.
A chronic smoker diagnosed with COPD was tested for an arterial blood gas
(ABG) analysis. After reviewing the patient's chart, the physical therapist is
MOST likely to see which of the following changes in the ABG results?
A. Decreased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and decreased pH.
B. Decreased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and increased pH.
C. Increased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and increased pH.
D. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH Right Ans -
Feedback Correct Answer - D
COPD causes dilation and destruction of the airspaces and alteration in
pulmonary vasculature resulting in mismatch in ventilation in the alveoli and
perfusion in the capillary membrane. This results in hypoxemia (decreased
oxygen in the arterial blood) in the early stage of COPD and hypercapnea
(increased carbon dioxide in the arterial blood) as the disease progresses.
A geriatric patient recently developed CHF. The patient has symptoms of
nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal irritability. The patient also presents
with mental confusion and frustration. Based on these symptoms, what
clinical condition does the therapist suspect?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Dementia
C. Digoxin toxicity
D. Age related symptoms Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - C
,Signs of digoxin toxicity in patients with CHF : Nausea, vomiting, headache,
dizziness, confusion, abdominal pain, delirium, vision disturbance. With
Alzheimer's and dementia, patient will experience significant memory loss.
A patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and chronic heart failure.
The patient's venous filling time is 10 seconds, while Homan's sign and rubor
dependency tests are both negative. These findings support which of the
following diagnoses? Select one:
A. Chronic venous insufficiency
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Arterial insufficiency
D. Lymphedema Feedback Right Ans - Correct Answer - A
Venous filling time- The extremity is elevated and then lowered into a
dependent position. The time it takes for the veins on top of the foot to refill is
recorded. Normal filling time is 15 seconds. Greater than 15 seconds indicates
arterial disease whereas less than 15 indicate venous disease. Rubor
dependency test is negative indicating no arterial insufficiency. No signs of
intermittent claudication and lymphedema are seen.
While evaluating a 30-year-old male with shoulder pain, the therapist applies
pressure at the end range of shoulder abduction and external rotation. The
patient feels a sudden PARALYZING pain and WEAKNESS in his shoulder. This
finding is MOST LIKELY an indication of:
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Myotome involvement
C. Anterior instability
D. Cervical spondylosis Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - C
The therapist is performing anterior apprehension test or crank test. This test
is primarily designed to check for traumatic instability problems causing
gross or anatomical instability of the shoulder; positive anterior apprehension
test indicates anterior instability.
A physical therapist is examining a patient with hypomobile talocrural joint
and finds that the range of motion of ankle dorsiflexion is limited. Which of
the following mobilization techniques can be used to increase ankle
dorsiflexion?
,A. Posterior glide of talus with small amplitude oscillations into tissue
resistance at the limit of available joint motion
B. Anterior glide of talus with small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations
performed at the beginning of the range
C. Posterior glide of talus with small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations
performed at the beginning of the range
D. Anterior glide of talus with small amplitude oscillations into tissue
resistance at the limit of available joint motion Right Ans - Feedback
Correct Answer - A
Posterior glide of talus with small amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance
at the limit of available joint motion At the talocrural joint, convex talus moves
over with the concave mortise made up of the tibia and fibula. So, according to
convex-concave rule, posterior glide of talus can be used to increase ankle
dorsiflexion. Grade I, i.e. small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations performed at
the beginning of the range is primarily used for treating joints limited by pain
or muscle guarding. Grade IV, i.e. small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations
performed at the limit of the available motion and stressed into the tissue
resistance is used as stretching maneuver to increase range of motion. So,
grade 4 and posterior glide of talus will be the most appropriate mobilization
techniques for the patient.
A therapist is examining a patient's straight leg raise by taking their leg into
hip flexion, knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion with inversion. Which nerve
is MOST likely being biased in this position?
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Tibial nerve
C. Sciatic and Tibial nerve
D. Sural nerve Feedback Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - D
Ankle Dorsiflexion with inversion places tension on the sural nerve. Plantar
flexion and inversion places tension on the common peroneal nerve.
Dorsiflexion and eversion with toe extension places tension on the tibial
nerve.
A physical therapist is assessing muscle strength of a 20-year-old male who
reports having shoulder pain ever since he started lifting weights at the gym
as part of his New Year's resolution. The therapist positions the patient in the
supine position with 120° of shoulder abduction and moves the shoulder
diagonally down and inward towards the patient's opposite hip. Resistance is
, given above the wrist in an up and outward direction. Which muscle is being
tested?
A. Pectoralis major clavicular head
B. Pectoralis major both heads
C. Pectoralis major sternal head
D. Pectoralis minor Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - C
MMT of Pectoralis major sternal head - the motion begins at 120° of shoulder
abduction and moves diagonally down and in toward the patient's opposite
hip. Resistance is given above the wrist in an up and outward direction.
During a gait training session, a PT notices that the patient is beginning to lose
balance in the anterior direction. What IMMEDIATE action should the
therapist take?
A. Pull the patient backwards
B. Allow the patient to re-gain their balance
C. Bring the patient to one knee
D. Push the patient forward Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - A
As the patient is beginning to lose the balance forward; pulling the patient
backwards will help him to regain balance by performing a posterior weight
shift. This is easiest to accomplish when assisted by the therapist.
While evaluating the gait of a patient with right hemiplegia, the PT notes foot
drop during mid-swing of the right leg. The MOST LIKELY cause of this
deviation is:
A. Inadequate contraction of the ankle dorsiflexors
B. Excessive extensor synergy
C. Decreased proprioception of foot-ankle muscles
D. Excessive flexor synergy Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - A
Ankle remains plantar flexed during swing and can be associated with
dragging of the toes, typically called drop foot. It is caused by weakness or
paralysis of foot dorsiflexors. Excessive extensor synergy causes tight plantar
flexors. Excessive flexor synergy causes excessive dorsiflexion. Decreased
proprioception does not cause foot drop. It causes sensory ataxia causing foot
stomping gait.
What conditions are the abnormal heart sounds S3 and S4 associated with,
respectively?
A. S3 = MI or HTN; S4 =CHF
B. S3 = Tracheal Stenosis; S4 = Asthma
C. S3 = closure of Mitral and Tricuspid Valves; S4 = Closure of Pulmonary
Valves
D. S3 = CHF; S4 =MI or HTN Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - D
S3 is heard in early diastole (after S2) and is associated with CHF. S4 is heard
in late diastole (before S1) and is associated with an MI or hypertension.
A chronic smoker diagnosed with COPD was tested for an arterial blood gas
(ABG) analysis. After reviewing the patient's chart, the physical therapist is
MOST likely to see which of the following changes in the ABG results?
A. Decreased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and decreased pH.
B. Decreased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and increased pH.
C. Increased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and increased pH.
D. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH Right Ans -
Feedback Correct Answer - D
COPD causes dilation and destruction of the airspaces and alteration in
pulmonary vasculature resulting in mismatch in ventilation in the alveoli and
perfusion in the capillary membrane. This results in hypoxemia (decreased
oxygen in the arterial blood) in the early stage of COPD and hypercapnea
(increased carbon dioxide in the arterial blood) as the disease progresses.
A geriatric patient recently developed CHF. The patient has symptoms of
nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal irritability. The patient also presents
with mental confusion and frustration. Based on these symptoms, what
clinical condition does the therapist suspect?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Dementia
C. Digoxin toxicity
D. Age related symptoms Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - C
,Signs of digoxin toxicity in patients with CHF : Nausea, vomiting, headache,
dizziness, confusion, abdominal pain, delirium, vision disturbance. With
Alzheimer's and dementia, patient will experience significant memory loss.
A patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and chronic heart failure.
The patient's venous filling time is 10 seconds, while Homan's sign and rubor
dependency tests are both negative. These findings support which of the
following diagnoses? Select one:
A. Chronic venous insufficiency
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Arterial insufficiency
D. Lymphedema Feedback Right Ans - Correct Answer - A
Venous filling time- The extremity is elevated and then lowered into a
dependent position. The time it takes for the veins on top of the foot to refill is
recorded. Normal filling time is 15 seconds. Greater than 15 seconds indicates
arterial disease whereas less than 15 indicate venous disease. Rubor
dependency test is negative indicating no arterial insufficiency. No signs of
intermittent claudication and lymphedema are seen.
While evaluating a 30-year-old male with shoulder pain, the therapist applies
pressure at the end range of shoulder abduction and external rotation. The
patient feels a sudden PARALYZING pain and WEAKNESS in his shoulder. This
finding is MOST LIKELY an indication of:
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Myotome involvement
C. Anterior instability
D. Cervical spondylosis Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - C
The therapist is performing anterior apprehension test or crank test. This test
is primarily designed to check for traumatic instability problems causing
gross or anatomical instability of the shoulder; positive anterior apprehension
test indicates anterior instability.
A physical therapist is examining a patient with hypomobile talocrural joint
and finds that the range of motion of ankle dorsiflexion is limited. Which of
the following mobilization techniques can be used to increase ankle
dorsiflexion?
,A. Posterior glide of talus with small amplitude oscillations into tissue
resistance at the limit of available joint motion
B. Anterior glide of talus with small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations
performed at the beginning of the range
C. Posterior glide of talus with small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations
performed at the beginning of the range
D. Anterior glide of talus with small amplitude oscillations into tissue
resistance at the limit of available joint motion Right Ans - Feedback
Correct Answer - A
Posterior glide of talus with small amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance
at the limit of available joint motion At the talocrural joint, convex talus moves
over with the concave mortise made up of the tibia and fibula. So, according to
convex-concave rule, posterior glide of talus can be used to increase ankle
dorsiflexion. Grade I, i.e. small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations performed at
the beginning of the range is primarily used for treating joints limited by pain
or muscle guarding. Grade IV, i.e. small-amplitude rhythmic oscillations
performed at the limit of the available motion and stressed into the tissue
resistance is used as stretching maneuver to increase range of motion. So,
grade 4 and posterior glide of talus will be the most appropriate mobilization
techniques for the patient.
A therapist is examining a patient's straight leg raise by taking their leg into
hip flexion, knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion with inversion. Which nerve
is MOST likely being biased in this position?
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Tibial nerve
C. Sciatic and Tibial nerve
D. Sural nerve Feedback Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - D
Ankle Dorsiflexion with inversion places tension on the sural nerve. Plantar
flexion and inversion places tension on the common peroneal nerve.
Dorsiflexion and eversion with toe extension places tension on the tibial
nerve.
A physical therapist is assessing muscle strength of a 20-year-old male who
reports having shoulder pain ever since he started lifting weights at the gym
as part of his New Year's resolution. The therapist positions the patient in the
supine position with 120° of shoulder abduction and moves the shoulder
diagonally down and inward towards the patient's opposite hip. Resistance is
, given above the wrist in an up and outward direction. Which muscle is being
tested?
A. Pectoralis major clavicular head
B. Pectoralis major both heads
C. Pectoralis major sternal head
D. Pectoralis minor Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - C
MMT of Pectoralis major sternal head - the motion begins at 120° of shoulder
abduction and moves diagonally down and in toward the patient's opposite
hip. Resistance is given above the wrist in an up and outward direction.
During a gait training session, a PT notices that the patient is beginning to lose
balance in the anterior direction. What IMMEDIATE action should the
therapist take?
A. Pull the patient backwards
B. Allow the patient to re-gain their balance
C. Bring the patient to one knee
D. Push the patient forward Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - A
As the patient is beginning to lose the balance forward; pulling the patient
backwards will help him to regain balance by performing a posterior weight
shift. This is easiest to accomplish when assisted by the therapist.
While evaluating the gait of a patient with right hemiplegia, the PT notes foot
drop during mid-swing of the right leg. The MOST LIKELY cause of this
deviation is:
A. Inadequate contraction of the ankle dorsiflexors
B. Excessive extensor synergy
C. Decreased proprioception of foot-ankle muscles
D. Excessive flexor synergy Right Ans - Feedback Correct Answer - A
Ankle remains plantar flexed during swing and can be associated with
dragging of the toes, typically called drop foot. It is caused by weakness or
paralysis of foot dorsiflexors. Excessive extensor synergy causes tight plantar
flexors. Excessive flexor synergy causes excessive dorsiflexion. Decreased
proprioception does not cause foot drop. It causes sensory ataxia causing foot
stomping gait.
