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NUR 641E final

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NSAIDS - correct answers-have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activity. Acetaminophen - correct answers-has analgesic and antipyretic activity, but not anti-inflammatory activity. The NSAID considered safe to use by individuals with heart disease - correct answers-naproxen. Gout is treated with - correct answers-antigout drugs (e.g., allopurinol, colchicine, febuxostat) and uricosuric drugs (probenecid, sulfinpyrazone). allopurinol and febuxostat. - correct answers-The only drugs that directly work on the pathophysiological causes of gout Renal calculi can occur - correct answers-as a comorbid condition in patients with gout. Colchicine - correct answers-reduces the inflammatory response seen in gout, reduces the pain in an acute gout attack, but does not stop gout from developing into chronic gouty arthritis. Colchicine efficacy is affected by - correct answers-its incidence of adverse effects. Allopurinol - correct answers-is the only drug that inhibits xanthine oxidase. Urate lowering therapy (ULT) can initiate an acute gouty attack; - correct answers-concomitant colchicine, NSAIDS, or corticosteroids are used with ULT drugs to decrease the incidence of ULT- induced acute gouty attacks. Allopurinol is the agent of choice - correct answers-for individuals with gout and high serum urate levels with underlying renal dysfunction, history of tophaceous gout, or urinary calculi. Acute gouty attacks are treated preferentially - correct answers-with NSAIDS (e.g., indomethacin, ibuprofen, naproxen, sulindac). NSAIDS can cause - correct answers-GI bleeding (indicated by darkening of stools and epigastric pain); one recommendation is switch to a COX-2 inhibitor (i.e., celecoxib). Ankylosing spondylitis - correct answers-is a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by fusion and stiffening of the spine and sacroiliac joints. acetaminophen overdose. - correct answers-Acute liver disorders (e.g., acute hepatitis, hepatotoxicity) may be caused by Osteoblast cells on bone - correct answers-cause bone formation; osteoclasts are cells on bone - correct answers-that cause bone breakdown. Osteomalacia - correct answers-is a condition of insufficient bone mineralization (softening of bone). Osteoporosis - correct answers-is a metabolic disorder with reduced bone mass/density. Osteosarcoma - correct answers-is cancer of the bone. Paget's disease - correct answers-is a disorder in which abnormal new bone growth occurs at a faster rate than normal, involving increased resorption of spongy bone tissue. ing pathologic fracture - correct answers-dorbeod fracture occurring at the site of a pre-existing bone abnormality, and occurs with a force that is considerably less than that which would cause a bone fracture at a different site. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) - correct answers-is synthesized in the hypothalamus and causes the reabsorption of water in the distal tubule and collecting duct of the kidney. essential treatment for hyponatremia - correct answers-normal saline IV (0.9%NaCl). Orthostasis can be a significant side effect - correct answers-with use of a diuretic drug.

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Institution
Nursing Pharmocology
Course
Nursing Pharmocology

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NUR 641E final exam
Pharmacokinetics involves - correct answers-absorption, distribution, metabolism and
elimination).
Absorption: - correct answers-absorption from the administration site either directly or
indirectly into the blood/plasma.
Distribution: - correct answers-reversibly or irreversibly move from the bloodstream into
the interstitial and intracellular
Metabolism: - correct answers-biotransformed via hepatic metabolism or by other
tissues.
Elimination: - correct answers-tissues. lastly, the drug and its metabolites are eliminated
from the body.
route of administration with the highest bioavailability - correct answers-intravenous;
putting entire dose into a patient's vein and bypassing absorption.
avoids first-pass metabolism - correct answers-Intravenous route
administration has variable and erratic absorption. n - correct answers-Rectal
administration
4. Steady state (SS) - correct answers-absorption. n is usually reached within 4-5 half-
lives of drug.
Half-life of a drug is - correct answers-how long it takes for half the drug to be excreted
from the body. Determines how frequently the drug must be administered. Predicts how
long toxic effects can last.is constant with first-order pharmacokinetics of a drug.
Zero-order (nonlinear) pharmacokinetics - correct answers-means a drug is metabolized
at a constant rate per unit time.
CYP3A4 substrate drugs - correct answers-may have enhanced activity if any CYP3A4
inducer drugs are used along with it.
Drug development process involves these steps according to the FDA: - correct
answers-Discovery: laboratory research to develop the new drug. Preclinical research
with animal testing for safety (Phase I). Clinical research on human subjects for
medication safety (Phase II). Clinical research in humans comparing the new drug to
accepted medications placebo depending on the study (Phase III). FDA review of the
results to determine approval. Post marketing study to identify adverse effects not found
in earlier clinical studies (Phase IV)
2. Medication safety organizations - correct answers-The Institute for Safe Medication
Practices (ISMP) The Institute of Medicine (IOM) The Joint Commission The National
Coordinating Council for Medication Error Reporting and Prevention (NCC MERP) Food
and Drug Administration (FDA) Safe Use Initiative
Two basic type of ADRS: - correct answers-pharmacological and idiosyncratic.
85% to 90% of ADRS - correct answers-are pharmacological.
Adverse drug reactions are usually preventable, - correct answers-frequently occur in a
hospital or nursing home setting, and include medication errors, adverse drug effects,
and allergic idiosyncratic type reactions.

, ADRS are not commonly reported; - correct answers-the FDA does not mandate that
ADRS be reported.
Polypharmacy - correct answers-involves using multiple health care providers for care,
using multiple medications, and using several pharmacies prescription filling.
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIS): - correct answers-lisinopril, captopril,
enalapril, ramipril, benazepril, fosinopril.
ACEIS reduce blood pressure enzyme. - correct answers-by suppressing the release of
angiotensin-converting enzyme.
Important side effects of ACE inhibitors - correct answers-Important include cough and
angioedema; discontinue the ACEI if angioedema occurs.
Angiotensin II receptor blocking agents (ARBS): - correct answers-Icandesartan
(Atacand), eprosartan (Teveten), irbesartan (Avapro), losartan (Cozaar), telmisartan
(Micardis) and valsartan (Diovan).
ARBS reduce blood pressure - correct answers-by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Essential (primary) hypertension - correct answers-Essential (primary) accounts for 90%
of cases; secondary hypertension may caused by chronic renal failure.
Nitroglycerin - correct answers-Nitroglycerin is a nitrate drug that can be administered
IV, SL, a topical ointment and as a transdermal patch.
Nitrates are contraindicated - correct answers-with PDE-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil and
vardenafil)
Amiodarone is the antiarrhythmic - correct answers-Of choice when there is coexisting
heart failure; can cause thyroid and pulmonary toxicity.
Alpha-1 adrenergic stimulation - correct answers-results in vasoconstriction and
increased blood pressure.
Alpha-1 adrenergic blockade - correct answers-results in vasodilation and reduced
blood pressure.
Beta-1 adrenergic stimulation - correct answers-by beta agonists (e.g., isoproterenol)
results in increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, and increased cardiac output.
Beta-1 adrenergic blockade results - correct answers-in reduced heart rate, reduced
blood pressure, and reduced cardiac output.
Left heart failure - correct answers-causes reduced delivery of oxygenated blood to the
body tissues.
Right heart failure - correct answers-is associated with pulmonary disease and
increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
drug that relieves heart failure symptoms but does not reduce mortality - correct
answers-furosemide.
Loop diuretics like furosemide - correct answers-are potent diuretics, can cause diuretic
resistance and hypokalemia, and work on receptors in the thick ascending renal loop of
Henle.
Loop diuretics inhibit - correct answers-reabsorption of sodium and chloride at this site
in the kidney.
Potassium-sparing diuretics: - correct answers-spironolactone, triamterene.
Milrinone - correct answers-phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for acute heart failure.
Children diagnosed with the tetralogy of Fallot can stop hypoxic spells - correct
answers-by squatting down compensatory mechanism).

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