ANCC BOARD PREP PART II EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS 2024-2025- GUARANTEED PASS
An older adult reports waking up that morning with one side of his face paralyzed. Complains of
difficulty chewing and swallowing food on the same side. Unable to fully close eyelid on affected side.
Bell’s Palsy
An 18-year-old female patient is being followed up for acne by the nurse practitioner. During the facial
exam, papules and pustules are noted mostly on the forehead and the chin areas. The patient has been
using over-the-counter topical antibiotic gels and medicated soap daily for 6 months without much
improvement. The nurse practitioner will recommend:
A .Isotretinoin (Accutane)
B. Tetracycline (Sumycin)
C .Clindamycin topical solution (Cleocin T)
D. Minoxidil (Rogaine)
Solution: B
Tetracycline (Sumycin)
First-line treatment for acne vulgaris includes over-the-counter medicated soap and water with topical
antibiotic gels. The next step in treatment would be the initiation of oral tetracycline.
Which diagnosis describes a chronic disease of the apocrine follicles and glands, characterized by
clusters of abscesses and pustules in the axilla, groin, and perianal area?
A. Mulloscum contagiosum
B. Hidradenitis suppurativa
C. Folliculitis
D. Furuncle
Solution: B
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic disease and recurrent inflammatory disorder of the apocrine glands
that results in painful pustules, nodules, and abscesses in areas such as the axilla, groin, perianal, and
mammary areas. It is more common in women; risk factors include obesity and a history of smoking.
Mulloscum contagiosum is a relatively common viral infection of the skin that results in round, firm,
painless bumps ranging in size from a pinhead to a pencil eraser. Folliculitis is a common skin condition
in which hair follicles become inflamed. It is usually caused by a bacterial or fungal infection. At first, it
may look like small red bumps or white headed pimples around hair follicles. It is not a chronic
condition. A furuncle, also known as a boil, is a painful infection that forms around a hair follicle and
contains pus. It is not a chronic condition.
A child diagnosed with eczema was treated with over-the-counter 1% hydrocortisone ointment. During a
follow-up visit, the mother reports that the rash does not seem to be improving. What level steroid
should the nurse practitioner prescribe next?
A.Group 6
,B.Group 5
C.Group 4
D.Group 3
Solution: A
Group 6
The patient is currently using a potency Group 7 (over-the-counter topical hydrocortisone, 0.5%–1.0%)
for eczema. The nurse practitioner should prescribe the next level of topical steroids, a Group 6, such as
desonide cream or lotion (0.05%) and then reevaluate for effectiveness. The topical steroid strengths
range from 7 (least potent) to 1 (very potent). For example, a Group 5 is fluticasone propionate cream
(0.05%), a Group 4 is triamcinolone acetonide cream (0.1%), and a Group 3 is amcinonide (0.1%).
Children should not be prescribed topical steroids for more than 2 weeks.
A patient has several well-defined, primary lesions <20 mm over the trunk and extremities. After
completing a dermascopic exam, the nurse practitioner diagnoses Bowen's disease. Which treatment
will the nurse practitioner recommend?
A. Moh's surgery
B. Radiation therapy
C .Curettage and electrodessication
D. Standard excision
Solution: C
Curettage and electrodessication
The patient has Bowen’s disease, a squamous cell cancer (SCC) of the epidermis that has not invaded the
dermis yet. Curettage and electrodessication is an efficient, cost-effective method with low complication
rates. Surgical treatments such as a standard excision (95% removal) and Moh’s surgery (100% removal)
are more invasive, and there is a greater risk for complications, especially in the elderly. Radiation
therapy is not indicated for low-risk lesions.
45.0% complete
Question
The nurse practitioner is conducting a health history on a 39-year-old male patient with necrotic ulcers
on his arms, face, and neck. The patient reveals that he is a livestock farmer. The nurse practitioner will:
A. Isolate the patient in an examination room
B. Administer the anthrax vaccine adsorbed (AVA)
C. Prescribe ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Solution: D
Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
A patient with suspected cutaneous anthrax requires a blood test to confirm Bacillus
anthracis (grampositive rods). The blood sample should be sent to the state lab and the CDC for
confirmation. Because anthrax is not contagious, there is no need to isolate the patient in an
,examination room. The anthrax vaccine is administered to specifi c populations (18 to 65 years), such as
military personnel, veterinarians, and people who work with specific animals or in slaughterhouses.
Once the diagnosis is confirmed and course of antibiotics completed, the vaccine can be administered.
Your female patient of 10 years is concerned about her most recent diagnosis. She was told by her
dermatologist that she has an advanced case of actinic keratosis. Which of the following is the best
explanation for this patient?
A .It is a benign condition
B. It is a precancerous lesion and needs to be followed up with her dermatologist
C. It will diminish with application of hydrocortisone cream 1% BID for 2 weeks
D. It is important for her to follow up with an oncologist
Solution: B
It is a precancerous lesion and needs to be followed up with her dermatologist
Actinic keratoses are small, raised skin lesions that result from extended sun exposure. Some actinic
keratoses may develop into skin cancer; therefore, further evaluation is needed to determine if removal
is required.
Acanthosis nigricans is associated with all of the following disorders, except:
A. Obesity
B. Diabetes
C. Colon cancer
D. Tinea versicolor
Solution: D
Tinea versicolor
Acanthosis nigricans is a benign skin condition that is a sign of insulin resistance. It appears as
hyperpigmented velvety areas that are usually located on the neck and the axillae. It is rarely associated
with some types of adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract. Tinea versicolor is a superficial
infection of the skin (stratum corneum layer) that is caused by dermatophytes (fungi) of the tinea family.
Another name for it is sunspots.
60.0% complete
Question
The parent of a 5-year-old states, "My child has had a rash for the past week and cannot stop scratching
it." Physical assessment reveals 1-mm papules and pustules, grayish-white burrows on the child's palms
and soles of the feet, and excoriated skin with honey-colored crusting on the face and neck. The nurse
practitioner will prescribe:
A. Topical nystatin
B. Oral griseofulvin
C. Oral ketoconazole (Nizoral)
D. Topical permethrin (Elimite)
Solution: D
, Topical permethrin (Elimite)
The assessment findings are consistent with scabies and require the application of a scabicide such as
topical permethrin (Elimite). Topical nystatin is used to treat candidal infections. Oral griseofulvin is
used to treat different fungal infections. Oral ketoconazole (Nizoral) is reserved for
severe fungal infections.
65.0% complete
Question
A nurse practitioner sees a fair-skinned patient who is experiencing recurrent small acne-like pustules
and papules on the cheeks, nose, and chin, as well as chronic dry eyes. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF)
B. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
C. Acne rosacea
D. Actinic keratosis
Solution: C
Acne rosacea
The patient is presenting with acne rosacea, a chronic inflammatory disease of the cheeks, chin, and
nose, with dry, reddened eyes. First-line treatment is to determine triggers such as spicy foods and
alcohol. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus affects one side of the head with sudden vesicular lesions on the
scalp, nose, and forehead. The patient may also report photophobia, eye pain, and blurred vision. RMSF
causes a rash, an abrupt onset of a high fever, chills, severe headache, photophobia, and nausea and
vomiting. A petechial rash starts on the wrists, forearms, and feet and then moves up to the trunk. RMSF
is caused by the bite of a dog tick that is infected with the parasite Rickettsia ricksettsii . Actinic keratosis
is more common in older to elderly adults. Numerous dry, round, and red-colored lesions do not heal
and mostly occur in sun-exposed areas. They may be precancerous lesions to squamous cell carcinoma.
The nurse practitioner is screening a patient for melanoma using the ABCD acronym. Which lesion size is
an abnormal finding?
A. Diameter <2 mm
B Diameter <3 mm
C. Diameter >6 mm
D. Diameter <4 mm
Solution: C
Diameter >6 mm
In the ABCDE acronym for melanoma screening, the “D” is for the diameter of a lesion. If the lesion is
larger than 6 mm (1/4) with asymmetry, border irregularity, color variety, and enlargement over time,
the patient should be referred to a dermatologist.
A 7-year-old is brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about "bumps" on his trunk and
armpits lasting for several weeks. There are no complaints of pain or itching, and the child is afebrile.
Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notes a cluster of 2-mm papules that are flesh-colored, dome-
shaped, and smooth with a central umbilication. Which diagnosis is most likely?
SOLUTIONS 2024-2025- GUARANTEED PASS
An older adult reports waking up that morning with one side of his face paralyzed. Complains of
difficulty chewing and swallowing food on the same side. Unable to fully close eyelid on affected side.
Bell’s Palsy
An 18-year-old female patient is being followed up for acne by the nurse practitioner. During the facial
exam, papules and pustules are noted mostly on the forehead and the chin areas. The patient has been
using over-the-counter topical antibiotic gels and medicated soap daily for 6 months without much
improvement. The nurse practitioner will recommend:
A .Isotretinoin (Accutane)
B. Tetracycline (Sumycin)
C .Clindamycin topical solution (Cleocin T)
D. Minoxidil (Rogaine)
Solution: B
Tetracycline (Sumycin)
First-line treatment for acne vulgaris includes over-the-counter medicated soap and water with topical
antibiotic gels. The next step in treatment would be the initiation of oral tetracycline.
Which diagnosis describes a chronic disease of the apocrine follicles and glands, characterized by
clusters of abscesses and pustules in the axilla, groin, and perianal area?
A. Mulloscum contagiosum
B. Hidradenitis suppurativa
C. Folliculitis
D. Furuncle
Solution: B
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic disease and recurrent inflammatory disorder of the apocrine glands
that results in painful pustules, nodules, and abscesses in areas such as the axilla, groin, perianal, and
mammary areas. It is more common in women; risk factors include obesity and a history of smoking.
Mulloscum contagiosum is a relatively common viral infection of the skin that results in round, firm,
painless bumps ranging in size from a pinhead to a pencil eraser. Folliculitis is a common skin condition
in which hair follicles become inflamed. It is usually caused by a bacterial or fungal infection. At first, it
may look like small red bumps or white headed pimples around hair follicles. It is not a chronic
condition. A furuncle, also known as a boil, is a painful infection that forms around a hair follicle and
contains pus. It is not a chronic condition.
A child diagnosed with eczema was treated with over-the-counter 1% hydrocortisone ointment. During a
follow-up visit, the mother reports that the rash does not seem to be improving. What level steroid
should the nurse practitioner prescribe next?
A.Group 6
,B.Group 5
C.Group 4
D.Group 3
Solution: A
Group 6
The patient is currently using a potency Group 7 (over-the-counter topical hydrocortisone, 0.5%–1.0%)
for eczema. The nurse practitioner should prescribe the next level of topical steroids, a Group 6, such as
desonide cream or lotion (0.05%) and then reevaluate for effectiveness. The topical steroid strengths
range from 7 (least potent) to 1 (very potent). For example, a Group 5 is fluticasone propionate cream
(0.05%), a Group 4 is triamcinolone acetonide cream (0.1%), and a Group 3 is amcinonide (0.1%).
Children should not be prescribed topical steroids for more than 2 weeks.
A patient has several well-defined, primary lesions <20 mm over the trunk and extremities. After
completing a dermascopic exam, the nurse practitioner diagnoses Bowen's disease. Which treatment
will the nurse practitioner recommend?
A. Moh's surgery
B. Radiation therapy
C .Curettage and electrodessication
D. Standard excision
Solution: C
Curettage and electrodessication
The patient has Bowen’s disease, a squamous cell cancer (SCC) of the epidermis that has not invaded the
dermis yet. Curettage and electrodessication is an efficient, cost-effective method with low complication
rates. Surgical treatments such as a standard excision (95% removal) and Moh’s surgery (100% removal)
are more invasive, and there is a greater risk for complications, especially in the elderly. Radiation
therapy is not indicated for low-risk lesions.
45.0% complete
Question
The nurse practitioner is conducting a health history on a 39-year-old male patient with necrotic ulcers
on his arms, face, and neck. The patient reveals that he is a livestock farmer. The nurse practitioner will:
A. Isolate the patient in an examination room
B. Administer the anthrax vaccine adsorbed (AVA)
C. Prescribe ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Solution: D
Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
A patient with suspected cutaneous anthrax requires a blood test to confirm Bacillus
anthracis (grampositive rods). The blood sample should be sent to the state lab and the CDC for
confirmation. Because anthrax is not contagious, there is no need to isolate the patient in an
,examination room. The anthrax vaccine is administered to specifi c populations (18 to 65 years), such as
military personnel, veterinarians, and people who work with specific animals or in slaughterhouses.
Once the diagnosis is confirmed and course of antibiotics completed, the vaccine can be administered.
Your female patient of 10 years is concerned about her most recent diagnosis. She was told by her
dermatologist that she has an advanced case of actinic keratosis. Which of the following is the best
explanation for this patient?
A .It is a benign condition
B. It is a precancerous lesion and needs to be followed up with her dermatologist
C. It will diminish with application of hydrocortisone cream 1% BID for 2 weeks
D. It is important for her to follow up with an oncologist
Solution: B
It is a precancerous lesion and needs to be followed up with her dermatologist
Actinic keratoses are small, raised skin lesions that result from extended sun exposure. Some actinic
keratoses may develop into skin cancer; therefore, further evaluation is needed to determine if removal
is required.
Acanthosis nigricans is associated with all of the following disorders, except:
A. Obesity
B. Diabetes
C. Colon cancer
D. Tinea versicolor
Solution: D
Tinea versicolor
Acanthosis nigricans is a benign skin condition that is a sign of insulin resistance. It appears as
hyperpigmented velvety areas that are usually located on the neck and the axillae. It is rarely associated
with some types of adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract. Tinea versicolor is a superficial
infection of the skin (stratum corneum layer) that is caused by dermatophytes (fungi) of the tinea family.
Another name for it is sunspots.
60.0% complete
Question
The parent of a 5-year-old states, "My child has had a rash for the past week and cannot stop scratching
it." Physical assessment reveals 1-mm papules and pustules, grayish-white burrows on the child's palms
and soles of the feet, and excoriated skin with honey-colored crusting on the face and neck. The nurse
practitioner will prescribe:
A. Topical nystatin
B. Oral griseofulvin
C. Oral ketoconazole (Nizoral)
D. Topical permethrin (Elimite)
Solution: D
, Topical permethrin (Elimite)
The assessment findings are consistent with scabies and require the application of a scabicide such as
topical permethrin (Elimite). Topical nystatin is used to treat candidal infections. Oral griseofulvin is
used to treat different fungal infections. Oral ketoconazole (Nizoral) is reserved for
severe fungal infections.
65.0% complete
Question
A nurse practitioner sees a fair-skinned patient who is experiencing recurrent small acne-like pustules
and papules on the cheeks, nose, and chin, as well as chronic dry eyes. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF)
B. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
C. Acne rosacea
D. Actinic keratosis
Solution: C
Acne rosacea
The patient is presenting with acne rosacea, a chronic inflammatory disease of the cheeks, chin, and
nose, with dry, reddened eyes. First-line treatment is to determine triggers such as spicy foods and
alcohol. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus affects one side of the head with sudden vesicular lesions on the
scalp, nose, and forehead. The patient may also report photophobia, eye pain, and blurred vision. RMSF
causes a rash, an abrupt onset of a high fever, chills, severe headache, photophobia, and nausea and
vomiting. A petechial rash starts on the wrists, forearms, and feet and then moves up to the trunk. RMSF
is caused by the bite of a dog tick that is infected with the parasite Rickettsia ricksettsii . Actinic keratosis
is more common in older to elderly adults. Numerous dry, round, and red-colored lesions do not heal
and mostly occur in sun-exposed areas. They may be precancerous lesions to squamous cell carcinoma.
The nurse practitioner is screening a patient for melanoma using the ABCD acronym. Which lesion size is
an abnormal finding?
A. Diameter <2 mm
B Diameter <3 mm
C. Diameter >6 mm
D. Diameter <4 mm
Solution: C
Diameter >6 mm
In the ABCDE acronym for melanoma screening, the “D” is for the diameter of a lesion. If the lesion is
larger than 6 mm (1/4) with asymmetry, border irregularity, color variety, and enlargement over time,
the patient should be referred to a dermatologist.
A 7-year-old is brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about "bumps" on his trunk and
armpits lasting for several weeks. There are no complaints of pain or itching, and the child is afebrile.
Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notes a cluster of 2-mm papules that are flesh-colored, dome-
shaped, and smooth with a central umbilication. Which diagnosis is most likely?
