NURS 231 PATHOPHYS FINAL EXAM questions with
verified answers
___ ____ is diagnosed by hyperglycemia, low serum bicarbonate, and low pH,
with ketonemia and moderate ketonuria. Ans✓✓✓ Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
____ disorders occur when the immune system fails to differentiate self from
non-self. Ans✓✓✓ autoimmune
_____ is the flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs. Ans✓✓✓
Ventilation
______ is defined as a blood glucose of <60 mg/dL, with associated cognitive
impairment. Ans✓✓✓ Hypoglycemia
______ measures expiratory volume in a given time. Ans✓✓✓ Forced expiratory
volume (FEV)
_______ failure is caused by conditions that damage the structures within the
kidney. Ans✓✓✓ Intrarenal
_______ is sleep disordered breathing due to the brain not properly signaling the
respiratory muscles. Ans✓✓✓ Central sleep apnea
________ utilizes electric impulses to inhibit or stop the abnormal nerve activity
that causes tremor and other unwanted movement patterns associated with
Parkinson's disease. Ans✓✓✓ Deep brain stimulation
,. Left ventricular hypertrophy is a major risk factor for what other diseases? Name
at least 2. Ans✓✓✓ coronary heart disease, cardiac dysrhythmias, congestive
heart failure, and sudden death.
1. ______ is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the
tumor as well as other distant sites. Ans✓✓✓ chemotherapy
1. The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2) include
each of the following except: Ans✓✓✓ a. Diastolic pressure
2. ______ is the most important factor in myocardial oxygen demand. As this
increases, myocardial oxygen consumption or demand also increases. Ans✓✓✓
heart rate
3. What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock? Ans✓✓✓ myocardial
infarction
4. Which does NOT occur during cardiogenic shock? Ans✓✓✓ decreased
systemic vascular resistance
A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and
sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic
mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment
might be used to relieve her symptoms? Ans✓✓✓ 1) Mast cells, basophils, and
eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because
they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response
is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or
late-phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with
eosinophils and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue
,damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of
treatment.
A 22-year-old competitive gymnast has experienced amenorrhea for the past 5
years. Her PCP is suspecting that she may have premature osteoporosis. Would
you expect her RANKL levels to be high, normal, or low? Explain why her levels
would be at this level. Ans✓✓✓ Her RANKL levels would be higher than normal.
Amenorrhea results in lower estrogen levels. Estrogen increases the production of
OPG which inhibits RANKL. Lower estrogen levels would lead to lower OPG levels
in turn increasing RANKL and osteoclast activity.
A 30-year-old man is brought to the ER with a knife wound to the chest. On visual
inspection, asymmetry of chest movement during inspiration, displacement of the
trachea, and absence of breath sounds on the side of the wound are noted. His
neck veins are distended, and his pulse is rapid and thready.
What is your initial diagnosis?
What type of emergent treatment is necessary? Ans✓✓✓ 1) tension
pneumothorax
2) chest tube
A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an H&P
and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP).
The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man's
CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/µL and his viral load is 250,000 copies/mL. (1) Why did
the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What
classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and
symptomatology, and why Ans✓✓✓ (1) Opportunistic infections are those
common organisms that do not produce infection without impaired immune
function. (2) The last phase, or AIDS illness, occurs when the CD4+ cell count falls
to less than 200 cells/µL or exhibits an AIDS-defining illness. The risk of
, opportunistic infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell
count falls below 200 cells/µL.
A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told
she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What
do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant
tumor Ans✓✓✓ i would explain to her that it is a benign tumor, and that there is
nothing to worry about
1 benign tumors grow by expansion and are usually encapsulated; while
malignant tumors grow by invading and taking over tissue
2: benign tissue is well differentiated and looks like the tissue of origin, while
malignant cells are undifferentiated and are atypical and do not look like the
tissues of origin.
A 40-year-old woman is hospitalized with a chronic illness characterized by
hepatomegaly, distended neck veins, and peripheral edema. Which of the
following disorders is the most likely cause of these findings? Ans✓✓✓ Right
heart failure
A 40-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and weight loss despite
increased appetite. The history and physical exam show exophthalmos,
tachycardia, and warm, moist skin. Each of the following lab abnormalities are
expected EXCEPT: Ans✓✓✓ Increased TSH
A 45-year-old obese, sedentary male has recently been diagnosed with type 2
diabetes. What are 2 strategies to help him normalize his blood sugars? List 2
other macrovascular complications he is at risk for and how you would screen for
them? Ans✓✓✓ (1) Diet, exercise, and weight loss may be all that they need to
control blood glucose levels. Even moderate weight loss of 5-10% of total body
verified answers
___ ____ is diagnosed by hyperglycemia, low serum bicarbonate, and low pH,
with ketonemia and moderate ketonuria. Ans✓✓✓ Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
____ disorders occur when the immune system fails to differentiate self from
non-self. Ans✓✓✓ autoimmune
_____ is the flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs. Ans✓✓✓
Ventilation
______ is defined as a blood glucose of <60 mg/dL, with associated cognitive
impairment. Ans✓✓✓ Hypoglycemia
______ measures expiratory volume in a given time. Ans✓✓✓ Forced expiratory
volume (FEV)
_______ failure is caused by conditions that damage the structures within the
kidney. Ans✓✓✓ Intrarenal
_______ is sleep disordered breathing due to the brain not properly signaling the
respiratory muscles. Ans✓✓✓ Central sleep apnea
________ utilizes electric impulses to inhibit or stop the abnormal nerve activity
that causes tremor and other unwanted movement patterns associated with
Parkinson's disease. Ans✓✓✓ Deep brain stimulation
,. Left ventricular hypertrophy is a major risk factor for what other diseases? Name
at least 2. Ans✓✓✓ coronary heart disease, cardiac dysrhythmias, congestive
heart failure, and sudden death.
1. ______ is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the
tumor as well as other distant sites. Ans✓✓✓ chemotherapy
1. The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2) include
each of the following except: Ans✓✓✓ a. Diastolic pressure
2. ______ is the most important factor in myocardial oxygen demand. As this
increases, myocardial oxygen consumption or demand also increases. Ans✓✓✓
heart rate
3. What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock? Ans✓✓✓ myocardial
infarction
4. Which does NOT occur during cardiogenic shock? Ans✓✓✓ decreased
systemic vascular resistance
A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and
sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic
mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment
might be used to relieve her symptoms? Ans✓✓✓ 1) Mast cells, basophils, and
eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because
they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response
is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or
late-phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with
eosinophils and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue
,damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of
treatment.
A 22-year-old competitive gymnast has experienced amenorrhea for the past 5
years. Her PCP is suspecting that she may have premature osteoporosis. Would
you expect her RANKL levels to be high, normal, or low? Explain why her levels
would be at this level. Ans✓✓✓ Her RANKL levels would be higher than normal.
Amenorrhea results in lower estrogen levels. Estrogen increases the production of
OPG which inhibits RANKL. Lower estrogen levels would lead to lower OPG levels
in turn increasing RANKL and osteoclast activity.
A 30-year-old man is brought to the ER with a knife wound to the chest. On visual
inspection, asymmetry of chest movement during inspiration, displacement of the
trachea, and absence of breath sounds on the side of the wound are noted. His
neck veins are distended, and his pulse is rapid and thready.
What is your initial diagnosis?
What type of emergent treatment is necessary? Ans✓✓✓ 1) tension
pneumothorax
2) chest tube
A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an H&P
and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP).
The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man's
CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/µL and his viral load is 250,000 copies/mL. (1) Why did
the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What
classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and
symptomatology, and why Ans✓✓✓ (1) Opportunistic infections are those
common organisms that do not produce infection without impaired immune
function. (2) The last phase, or AIDS illness, occurs when the CD4+ cell count falls
to less than 200 cells/µL or exhibits an AIDS-defining illness. The risk of
, opportunistic infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell
count falls below 200 cells/µL.
A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told
she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What
do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant
tumor Ans✓✓✓ i would explain to her that it is a benign tumor, and that there is
nothing to worry about
1 benign tumors grow by expansion and are usually encapsulated; while
malignant tumors grow by invading and taking over tissue
2: benign tissue is well differentiated and looks like the tissue of origin, while
malignant cells are undifferentiated and are atypical and do not look like the
tissues of origin.
A 40-year-old woman is hospitalized with a chronic illness characterized by
hepatomegaly, distended neck veins, and peripheral edema. Which of the
following disorders is the most likely cause of these findings? Ans✓✓✓ Right
heart failure
A 40-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and weight loss despite
increased appetite. The history and physical exam show exophthalmos,
tachycardia, and warm, moist skin. Each of the following lab abnormalities are
expected EXCEPT: Ans✓✓✓ Increased TSH
A 45-year-old obese, sedentary male has recently been diagnosed with type 2
diabetes. What are 2 strategies to help him normalize his blood sugars? List 2
other macrovascular complications he is at risk for and how you would screen for
them? Ans✓✓✓ (1) Diet, exercise, and weight loss may be all that they need to
control blood glucose levels. Even moderate weight loss of 5-10% of total body
