LATEST CEA PREP EXAM 2025-2026 EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS ALREADY VERIFIED BY EXPERTS AND
GRADED A+
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation
adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces
above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion
absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
ANSWER;Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely.
If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is
either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
ANSWER;Diastolic dysfunction
,Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with
thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed
with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a
DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
medication to prescribe him?
ANSWER;Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines
should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for
serial surveillance?
ANSWER;CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
,measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which
is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
ANSWER;phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
ANSWER;Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is
congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back
up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which
are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may
have an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a
patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload.
The only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
, Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal
medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will
manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would
you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
ANSWER;Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest
if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90
days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and
repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in
their EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their
repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this
patient as presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a
smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with
medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting
lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In
AND ANSWERS ALREADY VERIFIED BY EXPERTS AND
GRADED A+
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation
adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces
above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion
absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
ANSWER;Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely.
If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is
either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
ANSWER;Diastolic dysfunction
,Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with
thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed
with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a
DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
medication to prescribe him?
ANSWER;Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines
should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for
serial surveillance?
ANSWER;CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
,measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which
is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
ANSWER;phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
ANSWER;Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is
congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back
up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which
are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may
have an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a
patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload.
The only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
, Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal
medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will
manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would
you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
ANSWER;Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest
if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90
days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and
repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in
their EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their
repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this
patient as presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a
smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with
medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting
lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In
