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NR 667 WEEK 2 EXAM WITH 150 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LATEST 2025 (NR667 FNP CAPSTONE WEEK 2 EXAM) -
CHAMBERLAIN
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 174 minutes 146 out of 150
Score for this quiz: 146 out of 150
This attempt took 174 minutes.
Question 1
pts
At a follow up from a hospitalization, an adult patient presents with ankle edema. Which of the following
medications is the most likely cause of the edema?
Nebivolol
Correct!
Norvasc
HCTZ
Metformin
The most common side effects of calcium channel blockers include constipation and lower extremity
edema. The other options do not have any relationship specifically with edema, in fact,
hydrochlorothiazide specifically reduces edema via diuresis.
Question 2
pts
An older adult presents with the single complaint of bilateral pedal edema. The patient has a history of
diabetes and high blood pressure and is on oral medications. Which of the following medications is the
MOST likely cause of the patient's complaint?
Furosemide (Lasix)
Metformin (Glucophage)
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Lisinopril (Zestril)
Correct!
Amlodipine (Narvasc)
Question 3
pts
An older adult with diabetes mellitus presents with leg cramps. She states that the cramps as worst
when walking to the supermarket. If she stops to rest, the pain subsides. The nurse practitioner knows
that this patient needs a workup for:
Correct!
Intermittent claudication
Benign nocturnal leg cramps
Deep vein thrombosis
Popliteal aneurism
Question 4
pts
Your 53 year-old female patient is experiencing shortness of breath and has a diagnosis of pulmonary
arterial hypertension. Which ventricle is directly experiencing increased afterload from this disease
state?
Left Ventricle
Neither Left or Right Ventricles
Correct!
Right Ventricle
Both Right and Left Ventricles
Rationale: Understanding the flow of blood through the body is necessary to answer this question. The
circuit of blood immediately prior to the pulmonary artery is the right ventricle. The left ventricle will not
receive an increase in afterload from this, but may increase in preload.
Question 5
pts
The patient you just saw in your office is being hospitalized for sepsis. Which does not represent an
evidence of poor end-organ function?
Capillary refill on all extremities of 5 seconds
Oliguria for the past 24 hrs
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Correct!
Cardiac Index of 4
A cardiac index of 4 is normal. Altered mental status, minimal urine output, and poor capillary refill all
suggest poor end-organ function.
Patient is alert but oriented to his name only
Question 6
pts
Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and states he is having difficulty
walking great distances due to the pain in his calves. The most appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate
his leg vascular flow quality is which of the following exams?
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures
Exercise stress test
Correct!
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-invasive way, and the angiogram of the
leg with runoff is the best invasive way. Bilateral popliteal blood pressures would not show discretion
between upper and lower body if both equally low, and exercise stress tests are not used as a diagnostic
tool for claudication or PAD.
Angiogram of the leg with runoff
Question 7
pts
Which of the following medications is not considered part of optimal medical therapy for a 54 year-old
male patient with a diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) with an EF of 30%,
known coronary artery disease, and normal renal function?
Carvedilol (Coreg)
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Aspirin
Correct!
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Cardizem is not indicated for patients with heart failure as it can depress myocardial contractility, fluid
retention, and lower cardiac output. The rest are all appropriate agents for optimal medical therapy.
, Question 8
pts
Your patient with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease asks you what is considered a non-modifiable
risk factor. Which of the following represent the best answer for his question?
Correct!
Family history of PAD
Of the options, family history is the only non-modifiable risk factor for PAD. All the rest remain modifiable
risk factors (smoking, DM control, and medication compliance).
Smoking less cigarettes
Medication compliance
Tight glycemic control
Question 9
pts
As the nurse practitioner working in a primary care clinic, you have been notified from a hospitalist that
your long-term patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an
ejection fraction of 40% two years ago who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed
with a myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the patient’s medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which of the following would you expect to be a priority in the patient’s care for their heart
failure after an acute MI?
Correct!
Ordering a new transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI. A Holter monitor does not provide
any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented. The patient should have a protective mechanism
such as an implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than
35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo
in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
months.
Ordering aspirin and clopidogrel for 3 months at discharge
Ordering a Holter monitor for 7 days post-discharge
Ordering a new transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 45%
NR 667 WEEK 2 EXAM WITH 150 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LATEST 2025 (NR667 FNP CAPSTONE WEEK 2 EXAM) -
CHAMBERLAIN
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 174 minutes 146 out of 150
Score for this quiz: 146 out of 150
This attempt took 174 minutes.
Question 1
pts
At a follow up from a hospitalization, an adult patient presents with ankle edema. Which of the following
medications is the most likely cause of the edema?
Nebivolol
Correct!
Norvasc
HCTZ
Metformin
The most common side effects of calcium channel blockers include constipation and lower extremity
edema. The other options do not have any relationship specifically with edema, in fact,
hydrochlorothiazide specifically reduces edema via diuresis.
Question 2
pts
An older adult presents with the single complaint of bilateral pedal edema. The patient has a history of
diabetes and high blood pressure and is on oral medications. Which of the following medications is the
MOST likely cause of the patient's complaint?
Furosemide (Lasix)
Metformin (Glucophage)
,2|Page
Lisinopril (Zestril)
Correct!
Amlodipine (Narvasc)
Question 3
pts
An older adult with diabetes mellitus presents with leg cramps. She states that the cramps as worst
when walking to the supermarket. If she stops to rest, the pain subsides. The nurse practitioner knows
that this patient needs a workup for:
Correct!
Intermittent claudication
Benign nocturnal leg cramps
Deep vein thrombosis
Popliteal aneurism
Question 4
pts
Your 53 year-old female patient is experiencing shortness of breath and has a diagnosis of pulmonary
arterial hypertension. Which ventricle is directly experiencing increased afterload from this disease
state?
Left Ventricle
Neither Left or Right Ventricles
Correct!
Right Ventricle
Both Right and Left Ventricles
Rationale: Understanding the flow of blood through the body is necessary to answer this question. The
circuit of blood immediately prior to the pulmonary artery is the right ventricle. The left ventricle will not
receive an increase in afterload from this, but may increase in preload.
Question 5
pts
The patient you just saw in your office is being hospitalized for sepsis. Which does not represent an
evidence of poor end-organ function?
Capillary refill on all extremities of 5 seconds
Oliguria for the past 24 hrs
,3|Page
Correct!
Cardiac Index of 4
A cardiac index of 4 is normal. Altered mental status, minimal urine output, and poor capillary refill all
suggest poor end-organ function.
Patient is alert but oriented to his name only
Question 6
pts
Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and states he is having difficulty
walking great distances due to the pain in his calves. The most appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate
his leg vascular flow quality is which of the following exams?
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures
Exercise stress test
Correct!
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-invasive way, and the angiogram of the
leg with runoff is the best invasive way. Bilateral popliteal blood pressures would not show discretion
between upper and lower body if both equally low, and exercise stress tests are not used as a diagnostic
tool for claudication or PAD.
Angiogram of the leg with runoff
Question 7
pts
Which of the following medications is not considered part of optimal medical therapy for a 54 year-old
male patient with a diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) with an EF of 30%,
known coronary artery disease, and normal renal function?
Carvedilol (Coreg)
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Aspirin
Correct!
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Cardizem is not indicated for patients with heart failure as it can depress myocardial contractility, fluid
retention, and lower cardiac output. The rest are all appropriate agents for optimal medical therapy.
, Question 8
pts
Your patient with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease asks you what is considered a non-modifiable
risk factor. Which of the following represent the best answer for his question?
Correct!
Family history of PAD
Of the options, family history is the only non-modifiable risk factor for PAD. All the rest remain modifiable
risk factors (smoking, DM control, and medication compliance).
Smoking less cigarettes
Medication compliance
Tight glycemic control
Question 9
pts
As the nurse practitioner working in a primary care clinic, you have been notified from a hospitalist that
your long-term patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an
ejection fraction of 40% two years ago who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed
with a myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the patient’s medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which of the following would you expect to be a priority in the patient’s care for their heart
failure after an acute MI?
Correct!
Ordering a new transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI. A Holter monitor does not provide
any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented. The patient should have a protective mechanism
such as an implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than
35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo
in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
months.
Ordering aspirin and clopidogrel for 3 months at discharge
Ordering a Holter monitor for 7 days post-discharge
Ordering a new transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 45%
