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NURS 2207 ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATE//ALL YOU NEED TO PASS NURS 2207 EXAM//GRADED A+

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NURS 2207 ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATE//ALL YOU NEED TO PASS NURS 2207 EXAM//GRADED A+ NURS 2207 ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATE//ALL YOU NEED TO PASS NURS 2207 EXAM//GRADED A+

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NURS 2207 ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS 2025 LATEST UPDATE//ALL YOU NEED TO PASS
NURS 2207 EXAM//GRADED A+


Which autoantigens are responsible for the development of Crohn disease?

1. Crypt epithelial cells

2. Thyroid cell surface

3. Basement membranes of the lungs

4. Basement membranes of the glomeruli - ANSWER-1. Crypt epithelial cells


Rationale:

Crypt epithelial cells are considered the autoantigens responsible for Crohn disease. Thyroid cell
surfaces are autoantigens responsible for Hashimoto thyroiditis. The pulmonary and glomerular
basement membranes act as autoantigens responsible for Goodpasture syndrome.



Parenteral vitamins are prescribed for the client with Crohn disease. The client asks why the vitamins
have to be given intravenously (IV) rather than by mouth. Which rationales will the nurse provide?
Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

1. "They provide more rapid action results."

2. "They decrease colon irritability."

3. "Oral vitamins are less effective."

4. "Intestinal absorption may be inadequate."

5. "Allergic responses are less likely to occur." - ANSWER-ANS: 1, 3, 4


Rationale:

Absorption through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is impaired, and parenteral administration goes
directly into the intravascular compartment. Disease of the GI tract hampers absorption. Because the
mucosa of the intestinal tract is damaged, its ability to absorb vitamins taken orally is greatly
impaired. IV vitamins do not decrease colonic irritability. Route of administration does not affect
allergic response.

,A client with an acute episode of ulcerative colitis is admitted to the hospital. Blood studies reveal
that the chloride level is low. Which would the nurse be prepared to administer to the client? 1. A
low-residue diet

2. Intravenous therapy

3. Total parenteral nutrition

4. An oral electrolyte solution - ANSWER-2. Intravenous therapy


Rationale:

Intravenous therapy ensures a well-controlled technique for electrolyte (chloride) replacement.
There is no assurance that adequate chloride will be ingested and absorbed via a low-residue diet.
Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary at this point, although it may eventually be used. Oral
electrolyte solution is not a well-controlled method to correct electrolyte deficiencies.



The nurse is evaluating a client who has been receiving medical intervention for a diagnosis of Crohn
disease. Which expected outcome is most important for this client?

1. Performs skin care

2. Tolerates oral fluids

3. Experiences less abdominal cramping

4. Gains a half pound (0.2 kilograms) per week - ANSWER-4. Gains a half pound (0.2 kilograms) per
week



Rationale:

Weight loss usually is severe with Crohn disease; therefore, weight gain is a priority. This goal is
specific, realistic, and measurable and has a time frame. Although skin care, tolerating oral fluids, and
experiencing less abdominal cramping are important, they are not as high a priority as weight gain.



Which intervention would be included in the nursing plan of care to help a 10-year-old girl live with
Crohn disease?

1. Recommending several rest periods throughout the day

2. Emphasizing that high-residue foods be included in the diet

3. Assuring her that when she reaches puberty she may discontinue her medication

4. Encouraging her to express feelings while focusing on the ways she is like her friends - ANSWER-
4. Encouraging her to express feelings while focusing on the ways she is like her friends

,Rationale:

Focusing on feelings and abilities promotes effective coping and increases self-esteem. Children do
not like to be different from their friends. The child will self-limit activity during an exacerbation; at
other times the child should not need any more rest than her healthy peers. High-roughage foods are
limited because they can trigger intestinal inflammation. Telling the child that she may discontinue
the medication once she reaches puberty is false reassurance; there is no time limit as to when or if
medications can be discontinued.



Which medication will the nurse question when it is prescribed for a client with acute pancreatitis?

1. Ranitidine

2. Cimetidine

3. Meperidine

4. Promethazine - ANSWER-3. Meperidine


Rationale:

Meperidine should be avoided because accumulation of its metabolites can cause central nervous
system irritability and even tonic-clonic seizures (grand mal seizures). Ranitidine is useful in reducing
gastric acid stimulation of pancreatic enzymes. Cimetidine is useful in reducing gastric acid
stimulation of pancreatic enzymes. Promethazine is useful as an antiemetic for clients with
pancreatitis.



A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The health care provider's
prescriptions include nothing by mouth and total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse explains that
the TPN therapy provides which benefit?

1. Is the easiest method for administering needed nutrition

2. Is the safest method for meeting the client's nutritional requirements

3. Will satisfy the client's hunger without the discomfort associated with eating

4. Will meet the client's nutritional needs without causing the discomfort precipitated by eating -

ANSWER-4. Will meet the client's nutritional needs without causing the discomfort precipitated by
eating



Rationale:

, Providing nutrients by the intravenous route eliminates pancreatic stimulation, reducing the pain
experienced with pancreatitis. TPN is used to meet the client's needs, not the nurse's needs. TPN
creates many safety risks for the client. Hunger can be experienced with TPN therapy.



Which nursing intervention would prevent stimulation of the pancreas in a client with acute
pancreatitis?

1. Maintain the gastric pH at a level of less than 3.5.

2. Encourage the resumption of activities of daily living.

3. Administer the histamine H2-receptor antagonist as prescribed.

4. Ensure that the nasogastric tube remains in the fundus of the stomach. - ANSWER-3. Administer
the histamine H2-receptor antagonist as prescribed.



Rationale:

The histamine H2-receptor antagonist medication inhibits histamine at H2-receptor sites in parietal
cells, thus decreasing gastric secretion and preventing pancreatic stimulation. A lower pH will
stimulate pancreatic secretion, which contains bicarbonate ions that neutralize the acid. The client
should rest to decrease stimulation of the pancreas. The tube should be positioned nearer the
pylorus for the removal of gastric contents.



A client who has a history of alcohol abuse now has recurrent exacerbations of chronic pancreatitis.
The nurse asks the client to obtain a stool specimen. When assessing the client's stool, which would
the nurse expect to observe?

1. Melena

2. Steatorrhea

3. Hard, dry stool

4. Ribbon-shaped stool - ANSWER-2. Steatorrhea


Rationale:

Decreased secretion of lipase from the pancreas limits fat breakdown in the small intestine, resulting
in increased fat content in feces; steatorrhea is soft, frothy, foul-smelling feces. Melena refers to
black, tarry stool containing digested blood; melena is caused by upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
Hard, dry stool reflects constipation; stools associated with pancreatitis are soft and frothy.
Ribbonshaped stool is associated with obstruction of the descending or sigmoid colon.

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