D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse Exam
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - correct answers ✔✔Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it
will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - correct answers
✔✔Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause
of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct answers ✔✔Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information
found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a
form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second
trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - correct answers ✔✔Cri du
chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry
often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic,
low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct answers ✔✔The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a
daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other
X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
,Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? - correct answers ✔✔Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not
an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - correct answers ✔✔Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answers ✔✔The imprinted gene is the silent
gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? -
correct answers ✔✔The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against
illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - correct answers ✔✔Eosinophils
are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answers ✔✔Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answers ✔✔Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - correct answers ✔✔Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - correct answers ✔✔The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - correct answers ✔✔An immediate
(type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
,Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answers ✔✔Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including
ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? - correct
answers ✔✔Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a
false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answers ✔✔Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? -
correct answers ✔✔The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop? -
correct answers ✔✔Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct answers ✔✔UV light causes
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine
base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to
cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - correct answers ✔✔Exercise-
induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has been shown
to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - correct answers ✔✔TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result.
, One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate research and
evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level education in a manner
consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - correct answers ✔✔True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and
compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - correct answers ✔✔Low literacy often leads to perceived
noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully
understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - correct answers ✔✔Those
who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - correct answers ✔✔Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black Americans
an example of? - correct answers ✔✔Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population,
which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - correct answers ✔✔Prader-
Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this
chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited
from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - correct answers ✔✔Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can
heal.
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse Exam
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - correct answers ✔✔Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it
will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - correct answers
✔✔Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause
of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct answers ✔✔Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information
found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a
form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second
trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - correct answers ✔✔Cri du
chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry
often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic,
low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct answers ✔✔The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a
daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other
X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
,Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? - correct answers ✔✔Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not
an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - correct answers ✔✔Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answers ✔✔The imprinted gene is the silent
gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? -
correct answers ✔✔The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against
illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - correct answers ✔✔Eosinophils
are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answers ✔✔Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answers ✔✔Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - correct answers ✔✔Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - correct answers ✔✔The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - correct answers ✔✔An immediate
(type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
,Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answers ✔✔Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including
ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? - correct
answers ✔✔Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a
false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answers ✔✔Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? -
correct answers ✔✔The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop? -
correct answers ✔✔Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct answers ✔✔UV light causes
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine
base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to
cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - correct answers ✔✔Exercise-
induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has been shown
to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - correct answers ✔✔TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result.
, One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate research and
evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level education in a manner
consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - correct answers ✔✔True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and
compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - correct answers ✔✔Low literacy often leads to perceived
noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully
understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - correct answers ✔✔Those
who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - correct answers ✔✔Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black Americans
an example of? - correct answers ✔✔Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population,
which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - correct answers ✔✔Prader-
Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this
chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited
from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - correct answers ✔✔Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can
heal.
