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NR507 Edpats Weeks 4-5 - Edapt questions and material

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NR507 Edpats Weeks 4-5 - Edapt questions and material

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RN - Registered Nurse
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RN - Registered Nurse
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RN - Registered Nurse

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Uploaded on
February 2, 2025
Number of pages
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Written in
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Week 4
Renal/Urinary



NR507 Edpats Weeks 4-5 - Edapt questions and
material
Edapt Questions
❖ Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI? Increase water
consumption. Water consumption prevents UTI as it keeps bacteria
flushed out of the urinary tract.
❖ Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract infection? A
complicated UTI can be caused by a structural issue in the urinary tract.
❖ A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes: Urgency is a
symptom of lower tract UTI.
❖ Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of
having a shorter urethra.TRUE
❖ Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a
urinary tract infection (UTI)? Pregnancy is a risk factor the
development of a UTI.
❖ The presence of nitrites indicates that the causative bacteria is gram-negative.
❖ There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH) to develop cellular mutations that lead to prostate cancer.
FALSE. BPH does not lead to prostate cancer.
❖ The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone. TRUE. Anatomically, the
peripheral zone is the largest one.
❖ On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP
would be concerned with which of the following findings? A hard
nodule can indicate prostate cancer.
❖ The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when: The cause of
symptoms of BPH relates to the constriction of the prostatic urethra
obstruction that affects that passage of urine.
❖ The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction encountered
during urination. TRUE. The individual strains to overcome the
obstruction in order to release the urine.

,❖ The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes: 5-alpha-reductase
inhibitors shrink the size of the prostate by inhibiting the conversion of
testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.
❖ The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is: Prostate
nodules are usually located in the periurethral zone.
❖ The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-
ejaculation. TRUE. The luminal cells produce PSA which helps to
liquefy semen post- ejaculation.
❖ The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to increases
in dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and multiply.
This statement is true. The underlying cause of BPH is that normal
prostate cells respond to increases in dihydrotestosterone that causes
them to live longer and multiply.
❖ Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because: Stagnation of urine
in the bladder promotes bacterial growth which can lead to a UTI.
❖ Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder. FALSE. Renal
calculi can be found in the ureter or bladder.
❖ Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine. TRUE.
Stones form when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine.
❖ The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis. FALSE.
The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is CT scan.
❖ The most common type of stone is: Calcium stones are the most
commonly formed stones.
❖ The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is:
Struvite stones commonly result from a UTI.
❖ Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone. FALSE.
Lithotripsy, is a non-invasive procedure and will be performed if the
stone lodges on the way out.
❖ Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter. TRUE.
Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter with
obstruction and spasm.

,❖ At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence
within 10 years of the prior stone. TRUE
❖ The most common stone found in the patient with gout is: uric acid stone.
❖ The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating
micturition is: The pontine micturition center (PMC) located in the
brainstem, performs a major role in regulating micturition.
❖ When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal and
external sphincters constrict. TRUE. When the bladder is empty, there is
detrusor muscle relaxation and internal and external sphincter
constriction.
❖ The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital diaphragm. FALSE.
The internal sphincter is located in the bladder rather than the
urogenital diaphragm.
❖ Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
When Beta-2 receptors are activated by the sympathetic nervous
system, the detrusor muscle will relax.
❖ The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external sphincter.
TRUE. Plays a major role in constriction of the external sphincter
when the abdomen contracts, especially when abdominal
pressure is exerted on the bladder.
❖ Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is known as:
Functional incontinence is related to dementia or immobility.
❖ The pathophysiology of neurogenic bladder is: Neurogenic bladder
involves lesions that alter the nervous system impulses that innervate
the detrusor muscle to decrease bladder compliance and decreased
sphincter tone.
❖ A sphincter malfunction that prevents urine from flowing out of the bladder would
most likely result in: Overflow incontinence is due bladder distention
caused by sphincter malformation that prevents urine from flowing out
of the bladder.
❖ Which of the following is considered be a transient cause of urinary
incontinence? A UTI is a transient cause of urinary incontinence
because the symptoms subside once the issue is managed.

, ❖ The major cause of stress incontinence in women is hypermobility of the
external sphincter. TRUE
❖ One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is creatinine. TRUE.
❖ One of the first pathophysiological responses to the decreased GFR in
acute renal failure is: One of the first pathophysiological responses to
the decreased GFR is the activation of the renin-angiotensin-
aldosterone system.
❖ The most common cause of acute renal failure is due to a pre-renal failure.
TRUE
❖ A pre-renal cause of acute renal failure is: Hypotension is a cause of
pre-renal failure that reduces blood flow to the kidneys.
❖ Which of the following is the best indicator of a good prognosis for
recovery from acute renal failure? If the kidneys respond to furosemide
it indicates a good prognosis of recovery.
❖ In intrinsic renal failure, sodium and water excretion is increased which leads to a
dilute urine. TRUE.
❖ Which of the following is true regarding creatinine? Creatine is
freely filtered from the glomerulus.
❖ One of the issues that requires management of a patient with acute
renal failure is hypokalemia FALSE. Hyperkalemia should be managed
rather than hypokalemia.
❖ In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct. TRUE
❖ The result of vitamin D deficiency results in: Hypocalcemia. Vitamin
D is responsible for decreasing gastrointestinal (GI) absorption of
calcium and increasing bone reabsorption of calcium. If there is not
enough vitamin D, then hypocalcemia results.
❖ The anemia seen in renal failure is due to the lack of iron. FALSE. Anemia
occurs because there is a reduced production of erythropoietin which is
responsible for triggering the production of RBCs rather than the lack of
iron or a decrease in the RBCs.
❖ Stage III kidney disease is signified when the GFR drops below 60. TRUE
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