BARRON'S CCRN CARDIAC QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED/DETAILED ALL
ANSWERS GET IT CORRECT 2024/2025 LATEST
UPDATED BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR PASS
The patient with which of the following signs most likely requires an emergent
pericardiocentesis?
a) Hypotension, distended neck veins, and pulsus paradoxus
b) Hypertension, flat neck veins, pulsus alternans
c) Acute systolic murmur, enlarged ventricular septum, hyperventilation
d) elevated left heart pressures, S3 heart sounds, lung crackles - CORRECT
ANSWERS Answer: A
Cardiac tamponade requires emergent pericardiocentesis. Fluid in the
pericardial space prevents venous return up into the right atrium, leading to
hypotension and distended neck veins. Inspiration decreases venous return to
an even greater extent, which results in pulsus paradoxus.
The patient with acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction received fibrinolytic
therapy. Which of the following is a sign of successful coronary artery
reperfusion?
a) Increased blood pressure
b) Return of ST segment to baseline
c) resolution of S4 heart sound
d) improved oxygenation - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: B
Since ST segment elevation is a result of myocardial infarction (MI) secondary
to a lack of perfusion, then return of the ST segment to baseline is a sign of
return of perfusion. The remaining choices are not a direct result of MI.
The patient presented to the ED with a history of palpitations and dyspnea,
persisting on and off for one week. The heart monitor shows atrial fibrillation
with rapid ventricular response, blood pressure 112/70. Treatment will most
likely include:
,BARRON'S CCRN CARDIAC QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED/DETAILED ALL
ANSWERS GET IT CORRECT 2024/2025 LATEST
UPDATED BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR PASS
a) calcium channel blocker and anticoagulation
b) cardioversion and beta blocker
c) digoxin and aspirin
d) amiodarone and oxygen - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: A
The patient history seems to be one of intermittent atrial fibrillation over the
past week. Controlling rate (calcium channel blockers) and addressing potential
left atrial clot formation (anticoagulation) are priority treatments.
Cardioversion, choice (B), is reserved for the unstable patient; digoxin, choice
(C), may be used for rate control, although onset is slow and aspirin is not an
anticoagulant; amiodarone, choice (D), may result in conversion to sinus
rhythm, but this should not be attempted until the patient is anticoagulated.
The patient is receiving positive inotropes, vasodilators, and diuretics. The
patient most likely has which of the following problems?
a) right ventricular failure
b) left ventricular systolic heart failure
c) papillary muscle rupture
d) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: B
Positive inotropes increase contractility; vasodilators decrease afterload, and
diuretics decrease preload. Since the patient with systolic heart failure has
decreased contractility and increased afterload and preload, these agents will
be useful for the treatment of this problem.
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute inferior wall MI, post-coronary
artery stent deployment. For optimal care of the patient, the nurse should:
a) administer an analgesic for acute back pain
b) Apply pressure dressing to groin
, BARRON'S CCRN CARDIAC QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED/DETAILED ALL
ANSWERS GET IT CORRECT 2024/2025 LATEST
UPDATED BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR PASS
c) Continuously monitor the patient in lead II
d) Maintain the patient in a supine position - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: C
It is best practice to continuously monitor the patient status post PCI with
stent, in the lead that was most abnormal during the acute occlusion. Lead II
would most likely meet this criterion for the patient with an inferior wall MI.
The remaining interventions are NOT indicated for the patient post PCI.
The patient with aortic regurgitation will have which of the following on
auscultation?
a) Diastolic murmur, loudest at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular
b) Systolic murmur, loudest at the apex of the heart
c) Diastolic murmur, loudest at the second intercostal space, right sternal
border
d) Systolic murmur, loudest at the base of the heart - CORRECT ANSWERS
Answer: C
Aortic insufficiency (regurgitation) is backflow of blood during the time the
aortic valve should be closed. When is the aortic valve closed? During diastole
— therefore it is a diastolic murmur. The aortic area of auscultation is at the
base of the heart, second intercostal space, right sternal border.
Cardiogenic shock secondary to left ventricular failure will generally result in:
a) Decreased afterload
b) narrow pulse pressure
c) decreased preload
d) Widening pulse pressure - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: B
The systolic pressure decreases due to a drop in cardiac output; however, the
diastolic pressure either stays the same or increases due to a compensatory
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED/DETAILED ALL
ANSWERS GET IT CORRECT 2024/2025 LATEST
UPDATED BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR PASS
The patient with which of the following signs most likely requires an emergent
pericardiocentesis?
a) Hypotension, distended neck veins, and pulsus paradoxus
b) Hypertension, flat neck veins, pulsus alternans
c) Acute systolic murmur, enlarged ventricular septum, hyperventilation
d) elevated left heart pressures, S3 heart sounds, lung crackles - CORRECT
ANSWERS Answer: A
Cardiac tamponade requires emergent pericardiocentesis. Fluid in the
pericardial space prevents venous return up into the right atrium, leading to
hypotension and distended neck veins. Inspiration decreases venous return to
an even greater extent, which results in pulsus paradoxus.
The patient with acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction received fibrinolytic
therapy. Which of the following is a sign of successful coronary artery
reperfusion?
a) Increased blood pressure
b) Return of ST segment to baseline
c) resolution of S4 heart sound
d) improved oxygenation - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: B
Since ST segment elevation is a result of myocardial infarction (MI) secondary
to a lack of perfusion, then return of the ST segment to baseline is a sign of
return of perfusion. The remaining choices are not a direct result of MI.
The patient presented to the ED with a history of palpitations and dyspnea,
persisting on and off for one week. The heart monitor shows atrial fibrillation
with rapid ventricular response, blood pressure 112/70. Treatment will most
likely include:
,BARRON'S CCRN CARDIAC QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED/DETAILED ALL
ANSWERS GET IT CORRECT 2024/2025 LATEST
UPDATED BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR PASS
a) calcium channel blocker and anticoagulation
b) cardioversion and beta blocker
c) digoxin and aspirin
d) amiodarone and oxygen - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: A
The patient history seems to be one of intermittent atrial fibrillation over the
past week. Controlling rate (calcium channel blockers) and addressing potential
left atrial clot formation (anticoagulation) are priority treatments.
Cardioversion, choice (B), is reserved for the unstable patient; digoxin, choice
(C), may be used for rate control, although onset is slow and aspirin is not an
anticoagulant; amiodarone, choice (D), may result in conversion to sinus
rhythm, but this should not be attempted until the patient is anticoagulated.
The patient is receiving positive inotropes, vasodilators, and diuretics. The
patient most likely has which of the following problems?
a) right ventricular failure
b) left ventricular systolic heart failure
c) papillary muscle rupture
d) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: B
Positive inotropes increase contractility; vasodilators decrease afterload, and
diuretics decrease preload. Since the patient with systolic heart failure has
decreased contractility and increased afterload and preload, these agents will
be useful for the treatment of this problem.
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute inferior wall MI, post-coronary
artery stent deployment. For optimal care of the patient, the nurse should:
a) administer an analgesic for acute back pain
b) Apply pressure dressing to groin
, BARRON'S CCRN CARDIAC QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED/DETAILED ALL
ANSWERS GET IT CORRECT 2024/2025 LATEST
UPDATED BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR PASS
c) Continuously monitor the patient in lead II
d) Maintain the patient in a supine position - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: C
It is best practice to continuously monitor the patient status post PCI with
stent, in the lead that was most abnormal during the acute occlusion. Lead II
would most likely meet this criterion for the patient with an inferior wall MI.
The remaining interventions are NOT indicated for the patient post PCI.
The patient with aortic regurgitation will have which of the following on
auscultation?
a) Diastolic murmur, loudest at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular
b) Systolic murmur, loudest at the apex of the heart
c) Diastolic murmur, loudest at the second intercostal space, right sternal
border
d) Systolic murmur, loudest at the base of the heart - CORRECT ANSWERS
Answer: C
Aortic insufficiency (regurgitation) is backflow of blood during the time the
aortic valve should be closed. When is the aortic valve closed? During diastole
— therefore it is a diastolic murmur. The aortic area of auscultation is at the
base of the heart, second intercostal space, right sternal border.
Cardiogenic shock secondary to left ventricular failure will generally result in:
a) Decreased afterload
b) narrow pulse pressure
c) decreased preload
d) Widening pulse pressure - CORRECT ANSWERS Answer: B
The systolic pressure decreases due to a drop in cardiac output; however, the
diastolic pressure either stays the same or increases due to a compensatory
