Exam Questions and CORRECT Answers
Manic
The client is likely experiencing a manic bipolar state. Mania is an abnormal and persistent
period of increased, expanded, or irritable mood that is characterized by increased energy for a
period of time. A depressive state is characterized by five or more symptoms in a 2-week period
that demonstrate either a depressed mood or a decrease in pleasure or interest in daily activities.
Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by at least 2 years of chronic fluctuating periods of
hypomanic and depressive behaviors. - CORRECT ANSWER - The nurse is leading a
group therapy session for clients with bipolar disorder. During the session, a client with bipolar I
disorder becomes increasingly restless and starts constantly interrupting and criticizing other
members of the group. The client ignores the nurse's repeated requests to stop the disruptive
behavior. Which type of bipolar episode is the client likely experiencing?
Manic
Disruptive
Depressive
Cyclothymic
It involves a mood range from moderate depression to hypomania
Cyclothymic disorder involves a mood range from moderate depression to hypomania. Bipolar I
disorder is characterized by at least one manic episode; the manic episode may have been
preceded by and may be followed by hypomanic or major depressive episodes. - CORRECT
ANSWER - The nurse is teaching colleagues about cyclothymic disorder. Which statement
should the nurse include?
"It involves a single manic episode."
"It is a mood disorder similar to major depression but of mild to moderate severity."
"It is a form of depression that occurs in the fall and winter."
"It involves a mood range from moderate depression to hypomania."
, Manic episode
A client with bipolar disorder (BPD) who is prescribed antidepressive medication has a high risk
of having a manic episode in response to the antidepressant; to avoid this possibility, most clients
with BPD who need an antidepressant will also take mood stabilizers. Compulsive behaviors and
increased anxiety are not directly related to antidepressive medications. - CORRECT
ANSWER - A client with bipolar disorder has only been prescribed an antidepressive
medication. Which risk factor should the nurse consider to be the highest?
No change
Manic episode
Compulsive behaviors
Increased anxiety
Testing lithium serum levels every 1-3 days
The window between lithium toxicity and therapy is short, and close monitoring is required. -
CORRECT ANSWER - Which collaborative process of initial monitoring should the nurse
implement for a client who has been prescribed lithium?
Testing lithium serum levels every 1-3 days
Arranging for therapy sessions every 1-3 days
Arranging for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels every 1-3 days
Testing sodium levels every 1-3 days
The client expresses euphoric feelings of being on top of the world.
Hypomania is less extreme compared with mania and does not involve manifestations of
psychosis such as hallucinations. The client may feel like they are "on top of the world." Flight
of ideas and hallucinations align with mania. Powerlessness and coping with alcohol may be