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Exam (elaborations)

NU 610 (HU-AGPCNP) Advanced Health Assessment Midterm Exam (Qns & Ans) 2025

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NU 610 (HU-AGPCNP) Advanced Health Assessment Midterm Exam (Qns & Ans) 2025NU 610 (HU-AGPCNP) Advanced Health Assessment Midterm Exam (Qns & Ans) 2025NU 610 (HU-AGPCNP) Advanced Health Assessment Midterm Exam (Qns & Ans) 2025











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Uploaded on
January 11, 2025
Number of pages
28
Written in
2024/2025
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Exam (elaborations)
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AGPCNP NU 610

Advanced Health Assessment

Midterm Exam Review (Qns & Ans)

2025



1. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
diagnostic test for a 50-year-old woman presenting with
postmenopausal bleeding?
- A. Pelvic ultrasound
- B. Endometrial biopsy
- C. Hysteroscopy
- D. MRI
- ANS: B. Endometrial biopsy



©2024/2025

, - Rationale: Endometrial biopsy is the most appropriate
initial diagnostic test for evaluating postmenopausal bleeding to
rule out endometrial cancer.


2. A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of
pelvic pain and dyspareunia. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
- C. Ovarian cyst
- D. Uterine fibroid
- ANS: A. Endometriosis
- Rationale: Endometriosis is a common cause of chronic
pelvic pain and dyspareunia in reproductive-aged women.


3. Which of the following is the most appropriate management
for a 45-year-old woman with a 2 cm, asymptomatic ovarian cyst?
- A. Immediate surgical removal
- B. Hormonal therapy
- C. Observation and follow-up ultrasound
- D. Chemotherapy
- ANS: C. Observation and follow-up ultrasound

©2024/2025

, - Rationale: Asymptomatic ovarian cysts less than 5 cm in
premenopausal women are typically managed with observation
and follow-up ultrasound.


Fill-in-the-Blank Questions


4. The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in women
of reproductive age is __________.
- ANS: Pregnancy
- Rationale: Pregnancy is the most common cause of
secondary amenorrhea in women of reproductive age.


5. The recommended screening test for cervical cancer in
women aged 21-29 is __________.
- ANS: Pap smear
- Rationale: The Pap smear is the recommended screening
test for cervical cancer in women aged 21-29.


6. The first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis is __________.
- ANS: Metronidazole
- Rationale: Metronidazole is the first-line treatment for
bacterial vaginosis due to its effectiveness against the causative
anaerobic bacteria.

©2024/2025

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