CRT Practice Exam II | Questions With Complete
Solutions/ 100% Accurate
1. All of the following are true statements regarding the use of an oropharyngeal
airway EXCEPT:
a. An oropharyngeal airway that is too large may obstruct the airway
b. An oropharyngeal airway is contraindicated for use in unconscious patients
c. An oropharyngeal airway may induce gagging and vomiting
d. An oropharyngeal airway that is too small may obstruct the airway - ANSWERANS:
B.
EX: An oropharyngeal airway is NOT contraindicated for use in unconscious patients.
Airway is not contraindicated for use in an unconscious patient, only an alert patient.
The distal tip of the oropharyngeal airway may irritate the hypopharyngeal area and
induce gagging and vomiting. If an ororpharyngeal airway is too large the distal tip
may obstruct the hypopharyngeal area, resulting in airway obstruction. If an
oropharyngeal airway is too small the distal tip may push the tongue the back of the
throat, resulting in airway obstruction.
2 Which of the following would the respiratory therapist normally observe if a
conscious patient were breathing in the assist/control mode of ventilator support?
1. A slight drop in pressure before each patient triggered breath
2. A fixed or constant length of expiration
3. a variable time interval between breaths
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1 and 3 only - ANSWERANS: D
EX: 1. True - patient initiated breaths are normally observed by a slight dip in
inspiratory pressure just prior to the start of mechanical breath. 2. False - the length
of expiration is variable. 3. True - with patient initiated breaths mixed with timed
breaths, the time interval would be variable between breaths, not constant.
3 An intubated mechanically ventilated asthmatic patient is struggling to initiate
inspiration while in the assist/control mode. Which of the following ventilator
settings should the respiratory therapist first check to determine the cause of this
problem?
a. The pressure limit
b. The PEEP control
c. The tidal volume
d. The sensitivity - ANSWERANS: D
EX: In this situation, the inspiratory threshold is set too low, adjustment of the
sensitivity setting should be done.
4 Which of the following would be an appropriate recommendation for an intubated
mechanically ventilated patient receiving an FIO2 of 0.80 and PEEP of 10cm H2O
,whose clinical condition begins to improve as evidenced by chest x-ray , physical
examination, and arterial blood gas values?
a. Lower the inspiratory flow rate
b. Decrease the ventilatory rate
c. Decrease the FIO2
d. Remove PEEP - ANSWERANS: C
EX: In this situation an FIO2 of. 80 is unwarranted and should be lowered before
adjusting any other ventilatory parameter.
5 Which of the following breathing patterns help to optimize aerosol drug deposition
of the deeper recesses of the lungs?
1. Mouth breathing
2. Rapid, deep inspirations
3. Inspiratory pause
4. Pursed-lip breathing
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2 ,3 and 4 - ANSWERANS: C
To optimize aerosol drug deposition to the deeper recesses of the lungs, a patient
should be instructed to take slow, deep inspirations through the mouth, pause at
peak inspiration then slowly exhale trough pursed lips.
6 Which of the following patients should the respiratory therapist recommend
immediate intubation?
A. a patient experiencing an acute episode of bronchospasm
B. patient with thickened, retained secretions
C. patient with epiglottis
D. patient with post-extubation stridor - ANSWERANS: C
EX: of the patient conditions listed, only epiglottitis, because of its life-threatening
natured, requires immediate intubation.
7 Which of the following factors will cause the FIO2 of the high-flow oxygen delivery
device to decrease?
1. A shallow tidal volume
2. A decreased minute ventilation
3. A rapid respiratory rate
4. A malfunctioning air-entrainment port
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 - ANSWERANS: C
EX: A shallow tidal volume, decreased minute ventilation, and a rapid respiratory
rate will not affect the oxygen delivery from a high-flow oxygen deliver y device
while a malfunctioning air-entrainment port can cause alterations in the oxygen
delivery.
,8 Digital clubbing is a common complication of all of the following diseases EXCEPT:
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Chronic bronchitis - ANSWERANS: D
EX: Lung diseases which exhibit digital clubbing include: 1. Bronchogenic carcinoma,
2. Cystic fibrosis, 3. Bronchiectasis, and 4. Lung abscess
9 Restrictive lung disorders include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Cystic fibrosis - ANSWERANS: D
EX: Sarcoidosis, Kyphoscoliosis, and pulmonary fibrosis are all restrictive type
disorders while cystic fibrosis is an obstructive disorder.
10 The following measurements were obtained from a 59-year-old patient:
Lung compliance: 0.2 L/cmH2O
Chest wall compliance: 0.2 L/cmH2O
Based on the above information, the Total Compliance would be which of the
following?
A. 10 L/cmH2O
B. 20 L/cmH2O
C. 0.2 L/cmH2O
D. 0.1 L/cmH2O - ANSWERANS: D
EX: The formula for calculating Total Compliance is:
(1/CL) + (1/CW) = 1/CL-CW
(1/0.2) + (1/0.2) = 1/CL-CW 5+5 = 1/CL-CW 10 =1/CL -CW CL-CW = 1/10 CL-CW =0.1
( Lung compliance and chest wall compliance
Compliance is made up of lung compliance and chest compliance
--> 1/Ct = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw
* i.e. Summation of elastance (=1/compliance)
Thus, 1/Ct = 1/200 + 1/200
--> Ct = 100 mLs/cmH2O
http://www.ld99.com/reference/old/text/2878909-501.html)
11 Which of the following would the respiratory therapist recommend to a home
care patient for disinfection of his small volume nebulizer?
A. A mixture of vinegar and water
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Chlorine bleach - ANSWERANS: A
EX: the most effective and appropriate disinfectant for home use is acetic acid, which
is a mixture of vinegar and water.
, 12 Upon entering the room of a patient, the respiratory therapist finds the patient
asleep. At this time the therapist notices that the patient is being administered 2
L/min oxygen via simple oxygen mask. The respiratory therapist should immediately:
A. Remove the simple oxygen mask
B. Establish an airway
C. Establish unresponsiveness
D. Increase the flow meter setting to 6 L/min - ANSWERANS: C
EX: in this situation, the 2 L/min setting is inappropriate for a simple oxygen mask.
Since it should be 5 L/min or greater in order to flush exhaled gases from the mask,
the patient is most likely rebreathing exhaled CO2. Since the patient may or may not
be asleep, the first action would be to establish unresponsiveness. The next action
would be to correct the situation.
13 Which of the following would provide the best information about a patient's
response to the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin) for left ventricular failure?
A. Arterial blood pressure
B. Central venous pressure
C. Systemic vascular resistance
D. Cardiac output - ANSWERANS: D
EX: Digoxin is an inotropic agent administered to enhance cardiac performance in
patients with low-output states associated with left ventricular failure. Based on this
information, the cardiac output would provide the best measurement whether
digoxin is effective.
14 A patient who is receiving oxygen via a 31% air-entrainment mask becomes
dyspneic when he removes the mask to eat. The respiratory therapist should
recommend which of the following oxygen administration devices during meal
times?
A. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B. Nasal catheter at 5 L/min
C. Nasal cannula at 3 L/min
D. Nasal catheter at 3 L/min - ANSWERANS: C
EX: At 1 L/min the FIO2 delivered from a nasal cannula is approximately 0.24. For
each liter increase above 1 L/min, the FIO2 increases approximately by a factor of 4.
Therefore, if the FIO@ at 1 L/min is 0.24, at 3 L/min the FIO2 is approximately 0.32.
This closely approximates the FiO2 the patient is currently receiving with the 31%
air-entrainment mask.
15 Intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB) administered with a
bronchodilator would most likely be indicated for a patient who has:
A. Cerebral dysfunction with an ineffective cough
B. Asthma with thick retained secretions
C. Exacerbation of emphysema with a diminished ventilatory reserve
D. Atelectasis associated with mucus plugging - ANSWERANS: C
EX: Patients with acute exacerbation of emphysema most often have components of
airway obstruction that are potentially reversible mucous obstruction, airway
inflammations, and bronchial smooth muscle contraction. A bronchodilator would be
Solutions/ 100% Accurate
1. All of the following are true statements regarding the use of an oropharyngeal
airway EXCEPT:
a. An oropharyngeal airway that is too large may obstruct the airway
b. An oropharyngeal airway is contraindicated for use in unconscious patients
c. An oropharyngeal airway may induce gagging and vomiting
d. An oropharyngeal airway that is too small may obstruct the airway - ANSWERANS:
B.
EX: An oropharyngeal airway is NOT contraindicated for use in unconscious patients.
Airway is not contraindicated for use in an unconscious patient, only an alert patient.
The distal tip of the oropharyngeal airway may irritate the hypopharyngeal area and
induce gagging and vomiting. If an ororpharyngeal airway is too large the distal tip
may obstruct the hypopharyngeal area, resulting in airway obstruction. If an
oropharyngeal airway is too small the distal tip may push the tongue the back of the
throat, resulting in airway obstruction.
2 Which of the following would the respiratory therapist normally observe if a
conscious patient were breathing in the assist/control mode of ventilator support?
1. A slight drop in pressure before each patient triggered breath
2. A fixed or constant length of expiration
3. a variable time interval between breaths
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1 and 3 only - ANSWERANS: D
EX: 1. True - patient initiated breaths are normally observed by a slight dip in
inspiratory pressure just prior to the start of mechanical breath. 2. False - the length
of expiration is variable. 3. True - with patient initiated breaths mixed with timed
breaths, the time interval would be variable between breaths, not constant.
3 An intubated mechanically ventilated asthmatic patient is struggling to initiate
inspiration while in the assist/control mode. Which of the following ventilator
settings should the respiratory therapist first check to determine the cause of this
problem?
a. The pressure limit
b. The PEEP control
c. The tidal volume
d. The sensitivity - ANSWERANS: D
EX: In this situation, the inspiratory threshold is set too low, adjustment of the
sensitivity setting should be done.
4 Which of the following would be an appropriate recommendation for an intubated
mechanically ventilated patient receiving an FIO2 of 0.80 and PEEP of 10cm H2O
,whose clinical condition begins to improve as evidenced by chest x-ray , physical
examination, and arterial blood gas values?
a. Lower the inspiratory flow rate
b. Decrease the ventilatory rate
c. Decrease the FIO2
d. Remove PEEP - ANSWERANS: C
EX: In this situation an FIO2 of. 80 is unwarranted and should be lowered before
adjusting any other ventilatory parameter.
5 Which of the following breathing patterns help to optimize aerosol drug deposition
of the deeper recesses of the lungs?
1. Mouth breathing
2. Rapid, deep inspirations
3. Inspiratory pause
4. Pursed-lip breathing
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2 ,3 and 4 - ANSWERANS: C
To optimize aerosol drug deposition to the deeper recesses of the lungs, a patient
should be instructed to take slow, deep inspirations through the mouth, pause at
peak inspiration then slowly exhale trough pursed lips.
6 Which of the following patients should the respiratory therapist recommend
immediate intubation?
A. a patient experiencing an acute episode of bronchospasm
B. patient with thickened, retained secretions
C. patient with epiglottis
D. patient with post-extubation stridor - ANSWERANS: C
EX: of the patient conditions listed, only epiglottitis, because of its life-threatening
natured, requires immediate intubation.
7 Which of the following factors will cause the FIO2 of the high-flow oxygen delivery
device to decrease?
1. A shallow tidal volume
2. A decreased minute ventilation
3. A rapid respiratory rate
4. A malfunctioning air-entrainment port
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 - ANSWERANS: C
EX: A shallow tidal volume, decreased minute ventilation, and a rapid respiratory
rate will not affect the oxygen delivery from a high-flow oxygen deliver y device
while a malfunctioning air-entrainment port can cause alterations in the oxygen
delivery.
,8 Digital clubbing is a common complication of all of the following diseases EXCEPT:
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Chronic bronchitis - ANSWERANS: D
EX: Lung diseases which exhibit digital clubbing include: 1. Bronchogenic carcinoma,
2. Cystic fibrosis, 3. Bronchiectasis, and 4. Lung abscess
9 Restrictive lung disorders include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Cystic fibrosis - ANSWERANS: D
EX: Sarcoidosis, Kyphoscoliosis, and pulmonary fibrosis are all restrictive type
disorders while cystic fibrosis is an obstructive disorder.
10 The following measurements were obtained from a 59-year-old patient:
Lung compliance: 0.2 L/cmH2O
Chest wall compliance: 0.2 L/cmH2O
Based on the above information, the Total Compliance would be which of the
following?
A. 10 L/cmH2O
B. 20 L/cmH2O
C. 0.2 L/cmH2O
D. 0.1 L/cmH2O - ANSWERANS: D
EX: The formula for calculating Total Compliance is:
(1/CL) + (1/CW) = 1/CL-CW
(1/0.2) + (1/0.2) = 1/CL-CW 5+5 = 1/CL-CW 10 =1/CL -CW CL-CW = 1/10 CL-CW =0.1
( Lung compliance and chest wall compliance
Compliance is made up of lung compliance and chest compliance
--> 1/Ct = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw
* i.e. Summation of elastance (=1/compliance)
Thus, 1/Ct = 1/200 + 1/200
--> Ct = 100 mLs/cmH2O
http://www.ld99.com/reference/old/text/2878909-501.html)
11 Which of the following would the respiratory therapist recommend to a home
care patient for disinfection of his small volume nebulizer?
A. A mixture of vinegar and water
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Chlorine bleach - ANSWERANS: A
EX: the most effective and appropriate disinfectant for home use is acetic acid, which
is a mixture of vinegar and water.
, 12 Upon entering the room of a patient, the respiratory therapist finds the patient
asleep. At this time the therapist notices that the patient is being administered 2
L/min oxygen via simple oxygen mask. The respiratory therapist should immediately:
A. Remove the simple oxygen mask
B. Establish an airway
C. Establish unresponsiveness
D. Increase the flow meter setting to 6 L/min - ANSWERANS: C
EX: in this situation, the 2 L/min setting is inappropriate for a simple oxygen mask.
Since it should be 5 L/min or greater in order to flush exhaled gases from the mask,
the patient is most likely rebreathing exhaled CO2. Since the patient may or may not
be asleep, the first action would be to establish unresponsiveness. The next action
would be to correct the situation.
13 Which of the following would provide the best information about a patient's
response to the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin) for left ventricular failure?
A. Arterial blood pressure
B. Central venous pressure
C. Systemic vascular resistance
D. Cardiac output - ANSWERANS: D
EX: Digoxin is an inotropic agent administered to enhance cardiac performance in
patients with low-output states associated with left ventricular failure. Based on this
information, the cardiac output would provide the best measurement whether
digoxin is effective.
14 A patient who is receiving oxygen via a 31% air-entrainment mask becomes
dyspneic when he removes the mask to eat. The respiratory therapist should
recommend which of the following oxygen administration devices during meal
times?
A. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B. Nasal catheter at 5 L/min
C. Nasal cannula at 3 L/min
D. Nasal catheter at 3 L/min - ANSWERANS: C
EX: At 1 L/min the FIO2 delivered from a nasal cannula is approximately 0.24. For
each liter increase above 1 L/min, the FIO2 increases approximately by a factor of 4.
Therefore, if the FIO@ at 1 L/min is 0.24, at 3 L/min the FIO2 is approximately 0.32.
This closely approximates the FiO2 the patient is currently receiving with the 31%
air-entrainment mask.
15 Intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB) administered with a
bronchodilator would most likely be indicated for a patient who has:
A. Cerebral dysfunction with an ineffective cough
B. Asthma with thick retained secretions
C. Exacerbation of emphysema with a diminished ventilatory reserve
D. Atelectasis associated with mucus plugging - ANSWERANS: C
EX: Patients with acute exacerbation of emphysema most often have components of
airway obstruction that are potentially reversible mucous obstruction, airway
inflammations, and bronchial smooth muscle contraction. A bronchodilator would be
