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Rafi Neurology- Questions & Answers 100% Solved

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Rafi Neurology- Questions & Answers 100% Solved

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Uploaded on
November 23, 2024
Number of pages
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Written in
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Rafi Neurology- Questions & Answers
100% Solved
A 62-year-old man presents with weakness on his right side. His symptoms however
dramatically improve within 24 hours. What is the most likely diagnosis?



A. Stroke

B. Stroke in evolution

C. Minor stroke

D. Transient ischaemic attack

E. Completed stroke" Correct Ans-D. Transeitn ischameic attack

"



A 45-year-old obese man presents with right sided weakness, loss of sensation and visual
disturbances. On examination you note increased tone, brisk reflexes and an up going plantar
response. Which artery is most likely to be occluded?



A. Anterior cerebral

B. Middle cerebral

C. Posterior cerebral

D. Vertebral

E. Middle meningeal" Correct Ans-B. Middle cerebral

"

,A 53-year-old man presents with sudden onset vomiting and vertigo. On examination you note
left-sided facial numbness and a diminished gag reflex. There is also reduced sensitivity

to pain and temperature on the right side and evidence of a broad-based ataxic gait. Which artery
is most likely to be occluded?



A. Anterior cerebral

B. Middle cerebral

C. Posterior cerebral

D. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

E. Middle meningeal" Correct Ans-D. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

"



A diabetic life-long smoker presents with weakness on his right side. On examination you note
an audible bruit in his internal carotid artery. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?



A. Head CT scan

B. Plasma glucose

C. Carotid Doppler

D. Urea and electrolytes

E. Magnetic resonance angiography" Correct Ans-"A. Head CT scan



** Carotid doppler after you investigate the stroke"

,"



An obese life-long smoker presents with a 12-hour history of right-sided weakness,

loss of sensation and visual disturbances. On examination you note increased tone, brisk reflexes
and an up-going plantar response. His blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg. A head CT scan reveals
the presence of a cerebral infarct. What is the next most appropriate step in management?



A. Antihypertensives

B. Thrombolysis

C. Heparin

D. Warfarin

E. Aspirin" Correct Ans-"E. Aspirin



**presented too late for thrombolysis"

"



A 35-year-old man presents with visual disturbance. He is later diagnosed with multiple
sclerosis. What is the most likely type of his visual loss?



A. Scotoma

B. Bitemporal hemianopia

C. Homonymous hemianopia

D. Homonymous quadrantanopia

, E. None of the above" Correct Ans-A. Scotoma

"



A 45-year-old man presents with visual disturbance. A CT head scan reveals a temporal lobe
lesion. What is the most likely type of his visual loss?



A. Scotoma

B. Bitemporal hemianopia

C. Homonymous hemianopia

D. Homonymous quadrantanopia

E. None of the above" Correct Ans-D. Homonymous quadrantopia

"



A32-year-oldmanisfoundunconsciousathis home. He is immediately transferred to accident and
emergency. On examination he is noted to have bilateral pupillary constriction. The following are
all causes of pupil constriction EXCEPT?



A. III nerve palsy

B. Horner's syndrome

C. Argyll Robertson pupil

D. Opiate addiction

E. Lesion at the pons" Correct Ans-A. III nerve palsy

"

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