Ignatavicius Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition
2025-2026 Newest Exam Graded And Rated A+
A client presents with pruritus of the lower extremities. Which nursing assessment is most
appropriate?
a. Blood draw to determine electrolyte imbalance
b. Weight to determine fluid retention
c. Microscopic evaluation to determine presence of fungus
d. Surface evaluation for presence of dry skin - Answer-ANS: D
The client with pruritus often has dry skin as a stimulus. The nurse should evaluate this first.
If present, the client should be instructed in how to treat this.
For which client would the nurse first prioritize care?
a. Client with folliculitis
b. Client with furuncles
c. Client with cellulitis
d. Client with stage II ulcer - Answer-ANS: C
The client with cellulitis has a generalized infection with Staphylococcus or Streptococcus
that involves deep connective tissue. The client with folliculitis has a superficial infection of
the upper portion of the follicle and the client with furuncles has a deeper infection in the
hair follicle. A client with a stage II ulcer with no infection is less of a priority.
,Which client admitted to the hospital will be placed in isolation awaiting possible diagnosis of
infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
a. The client admitted from a long-term care facility with furuncles and folliculitis
b. The client with a leg cut from a motorcycle crash
c. An adolescent with a rash noticed after a wrestling match
d. A client transferred from a surgical stepdown unit with an elevated white count -
Answer-ANS: A
The client in long-term care and other communal environments is at high risk for MRSA. The
presence of furuncles and folliculitis is also an indication that MRSA may be present. A client
with an open wound from a motorcycle crash would have a potential to develop MRSA, but no
signs are visible at present. A client with an elevated white count has a potential for an
infection, but should be at lower risk for MRSA than the client admitted from the communal
environment.
Which nurse most was infected by a client?
a. The nurse with an oral lesion determined to be herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV1) infection
b. The nurse with herpetic whitlow of the fingertip
c. The nurse with herpes zoster involving the right side of the body
d. The nurse with postherpetic neuralgia - Answer-ANS: B
Herpetic whitlow is a form of herpes simplex infection that occurs in health care personnel
who have come into contact with viral secretions. This can be spread to other clients as
well, and precautions must be taken. HSV1 infection is most likely a recurring cold sore.
Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of a virus dormant in the body. Postherpetic
neuralgia occurs after an outbreak of herpes zoster and is not contagious.
, Which precaution will the nurse teach the client with urticaria who is prescribed to take
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)?
a. "Avoid sun exposure."
b. "Avoid alcoholic beverages."
c. "Avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing drugs."
d. "Avoid weight gain." - Answer-ANS: B
Benadryl is an antihistamine that will decrease itching. For most people, diphenhydramine
causes drowsiness. This side effect is intensified when alcohol also is consumed, placing the
client at increased risk for injury and falling. Aspirin will not interact with this medication.
Weight gain and sun exposure should not affect the administration of the drug.
When changing the dressing on a partial-thickness wound, a nurse observes small, pale pink
bumps within the wound bed. Which is the nurse's best action?
a. Removing the bumps with a sterile scalpel
b. Documenting and continuing current treatment
c. Cleaning the wound vigorously, wiping off the bumps
d. Culturing the wound and placing the client on contact precautions - Answer-ANS: B
The small, pale pink bumps are granulation tissue characteristic of new capillary bed
growth, an indication of proper wound healing. The nurse should continue current treatment
and assessments. Attempting to remove the bumps in any way can interfere with healing.
Which nursing intervention is best for the nurse to use to enhance healing of a 1-week-old
partial-thickness wound?
a. Using papain-urea (Accuzyme) cream as ordered
b. Restricting the client's fluid intake
2025-2026 Newest Exam Graded And Rated A+
A client presents with pruritus of the lower extremities. Which nursing assessment is most
appropriate?
a. Blood draw to determine electrolyte imbalance
b. Weight to determine fluid retention
c. Microscopic evaluation to determine presence of fungus
d. Surface evaluation for presence of dry skin - Answer-ANS: D
The client with pruritus often has dry skin as a stimulus. The nurse should evaluate this first.
If present, the client should be instructed in how to treat this.
For which client would the nurse first prioritize care?
a. Client with folliculitis
b. Client with furuncles
c. Client with cellulitis
d. Client with stage II ulcer - Answer-ANS: C
The client with cellulitis has a generalized infection with Staphylococcus or Streptococcus
that involves deep connective tissue. The client with folliculitis has a superficial infection of
the upper portion of the follicle and the client with furuncles has a deeper infection in the
hair follicle. A client with a stage II ulcer with no infection is less of a priority.
,Which client admitted to the hospital will be placed in isolation awaiting possible diagnosis of
infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
a. The client admitted from a long-term care facility with furuncles and folliculitis
b. The client with a leg cut from a motorcycle crash
c. An adolescent with a rash noticed after a wrestling match
d. A client transferred from a surgical stepdown unit with an elevated white count -
Answer-ANS: A
The client in long-term care and other communal environments is at high risk for MRSA. The
presence of furuncles and folliculitis is also an indication that MRSA may be present. A client
with an open wound from a motorcycle crash would have a potential to develop MRSA, but no
signs are visible at present. A client with an elevated white count has a potential for an
infection, but should be at lower risk for MRSA than the client admitted from the communal
environment.
Which nurse most was infected by a client?
a. The nurse with an oral lesion determined to be herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV1) infection
b. The nurse with herpetic whitlow of the fingertip
c. The nurse with herpes zoster involving the right side of the body
d. The nurse with postherpetic neuralgia - Answer-ANS: B
Herpetic whitlow is a form of herpes simplex infection that occurs in health care personnel
who have come into contact with viral secretions. This can be spread to other clients as
well, and precautions must be taken. HSV1 infection is most likely a recurring cold sore.
Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of a virus dormant in the body. Postherpetic
neuralgia occurs after an outbreak of herpes zoster and is not contagious.
, Which precaution will the nurse teach the client with urticaria who is prescribed to take
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)?
a. "Avoid sun exposure."
b. "Avoid alcoholic beverages."
c. "Avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing drugs."
d. "Avoid weight gain." - Answer-ANS: B
Benadryl is an antihistamine that will decrease itching. For most people, diphenhydramine
causes drowsiness. This side effect is intensified when alcohol also is consumed, placing the
client at increased risk for injury and falling. Aspirin will not interact with this medication.
Weight gain and sun exposure should not affect the administration of the drug.
When changing the dressing on a partial-thickness wound, a nurse observes small, pale pink
bumps within the wound bed. Which is the nurse's best action?
a. Removing the bumps with a sterile scalpel
b. Documenting and continuing current treatment
c. Cleaning the wound vigorously, wiping off the bumps
d. Culturing the wound and placing the client on contact precautions - Answer-ANS: B
The small, pale pink bumps are granulation tissue characteristic of new capillary bed
growth, an indication of proper wound healing. The nurse should continue current treatment
and assessments. Attempting to remove the bumps in any way can interfere with healing.
Which nursing intervention is best for the nurse to use to enhance healing of a 1-week-old
partial-thickness wound?
a. Using papain-urea (Accuzyme) cream as ordered
b. Restricting the client's fluid intake
