HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE
QUESTIONS FOR FINAL
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal
patch. Whichfinding indicates that the desired effect of the
assessment
medication has been
achieved
?A. Client denies recent episodes of
angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3
to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or
vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct
correct answers
Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent.
(D)
a indicatesin hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these
reduction
findings do desired outcomes of
not indicate
Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular
weight heparin
(LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the
nurse whythis
receiving he medication.
is Which is the best response for the nurse
to
A. provide?
This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot
formation.
B. Correct enhances antibiotics to prevent
This medication
infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection correct answers Unfractionated heparin or low
molecular
weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated
conversion
of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent
postoperative
thrombosis (A)venousor to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis
following
and knee surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot
abdominal
extension
further clotorformation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent
infection (B)
influence operative
or wound
healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin)
receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of
the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most
immediate
interventio
n?
A.
Heartburn.
B.
Headache.
C.
Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct correct answers Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal
pain are early
indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis
toxicity,requires
finding this the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B
and C) areside effects of
expected
Lipitor
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which
information
most is for the nurse to provide to the client about diet
important
modifications?
, Do not add salt to foods during
preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
Correct fluid intake to 1000 ml
Restrict
per day. intake of milk and milk products. correct answers Spironolactone
Increase
(Aldactone),
an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in
potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which
can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart
failure, the riskisof
hyperkalemia more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or
increasing
milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this
prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4
divided
over thedoses
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to
implement?
q6h.
Correct
QID.
AC and
bedtime.
PC and bedtime. correct answers Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It
should be
taken around-the-clock (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be
maintained,
thereby decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an adverse effect)
occurring
of too much because
of the drug circulating systemically at any particular time of
day.
D) do(B,
notC,provide
and an around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be
givenifwith
food GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule
should still be
maintaine
d.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the
triage
at the nurse
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which
statement
reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to
this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels
can cause
muscle
spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment
to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of
cramping.
C. Make an appointment correct answers Myopathy, suggested by the leg
pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening,
complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the
healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B)
can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg
pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is
recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total
cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
, A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which
instruction
most is
important for the nurse to teach this
client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control.
Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet
light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning
pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. correct answers Drugs
classified Xinplace
category the a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy
at risk for
teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be
counseled
reliable formto of
use a control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific
birth
precautionX with
Category drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for
pregnancy
the healthcarewithprovider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be
provided if occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy
pregnancy
explains the
restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not
indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of
pain at the
insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which
intervention
important foristhe
most
nurse to
implement?
A. Assess for
erythema.
B. Administer the
antidote.
C. Apply warm
compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct correct answers Doxorubicin is an
antineoplastic
agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon
extravasation.
First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further
tissue
by the damage
vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted, but
edema
pain at and
the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an
available
antidote may(B), additional
be fluids contribute to the trauma of the
subcutaneous
Depending on tissues.
the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be
prescribed
after the infusion is
discontinued.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin
blocker (ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse
II receptor
reviewslaboratory
client's the results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is
5.9 mEq/L.
What action should the nurse take
first?
QUESTIONS FOR FINAL
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal
patch. Whichfinding indicates that the desired effect of the
assessment
medication has been
achieved
?A. Client denies recent episodes of
angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3
to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or
vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct
correct answers
Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent.
(D)
a indicatesin hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these
reduction
findings do desired outcomes of
not indicate
Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular
weight heparin
(LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the
nurse whythis
receiving he medication.
is Which is the best response for the nurse
to
A. provide?
This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot
formation.
B. Correct enhances antibiotics to prevent
This medication
infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection correct answers Unfractionated heparin or low
molecular
weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated
conversion
of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent
postoperative
thrombosis (A)venousor to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis
following
and knee surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot
abdominal
extension
further clotorformation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent
infection (B)
influence operative
or wound
healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin)
receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of
the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most
immediate
interventio
n?
A.
Heartburn.
B.
Headache.
C.
Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct correct answers Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal
pain are early
indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis
toxicity,requires
finding this the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B
and C) areside effects of
expected
Lipitor
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which
information
most is for the nurse to provide to the client about diet
important
modifications?
, Do not add salt to foods during
preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
Correct fluid intake to 1000 ml
Restrict
per day. intake of milk and milk products. correct answers Spironolactone
Increase
(Aldactone),
an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in
potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which
can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart
failure, the riskisof
hyperkalemia more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or
increasing
milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this
prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4
divided
over thedoses
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to
implement?
q6h.
Correct
QID.
AC and
bedtime.
PC and bedtime. correct answers Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It
should be
taken around-the-clock (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be
maintained,
thereby decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an adverse effect)
occurring
of too much because
of the drug circulating systemically at any particular time of
day.
D) do(B,
notC,provide
and an around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be
givenifwith
food GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule
should still be
maintaine
d.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the
triage
at the nurse
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which
statement
reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to
this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels
can cause
muscle
spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment
to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of
cramping.
C. Make an appointment correct answers Myopathy, suggested by the leg
pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening,
complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the
healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B)
can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg
pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is
recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total
cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
, A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which
instruction
most is
important for the nurse to teach this
client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control.
Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet
light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning
pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. correct answers Drugs
classified Xinplace
category the a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy
at risk for
teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be
counseled
reliable formto of
use a control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific
birth
precautionX with
Category drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for
pregnancy
the healthcarewithprovider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be
provided if occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy
pregnancy
explains the
restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not
indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of
pain at the
insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which
intervention
important foristhe
most
nurse to
implement?
A. Assess for
erythema.
B. Administer the
antidote.
C. Apply warm
compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct correct answers Doxorubicin is an
antineoplastic
agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon
extravasation.
First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further
tissue
by the damage
vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted, but
edema
pain at and
the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an
available
antidote may(B), additional
be fluids contribute to the trauma of the
subcutaneous
Depending on tissues.
the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be
prescribed
after the infusion is
discontinued.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin
blocker (ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse
II receptor
reviewslaboratory
client's the results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is
5.9 mEq/L.
What action should the nurse take
first?
