A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal
patch. Whichfinding indicates that the desired effect of the medication
assessment
has been
achieved
?A. Client denies recent episodes of
angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3
to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or
vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct correct
answers
Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent.
(D)
a indicatesin hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these
reduction
findings
not do desired outcomes of
indicate
Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular
weight heparin
(LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse
why he is this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to
receiving
provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot
formation.
B. Correct enhances antibiotics to prevent
This medication
infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal
wound. Unfractionated
answers correct heparin or low molecular weight heparin
(LMWH) is an that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to
anticoagulant
fibrin and
given is
prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A)
or to treat embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal
pulmonary
surgeries.
Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot
formation
The (C).
anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence
operative wound
healing
(D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin)
receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of
the Lipitor the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most
prescription,
immediate
interventio
n?
A.
B.
Heartburn.
Headache.
C.
Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct correct answers Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain
are early of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis
indications
toxicity,requires
finding this the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B
and C) areside effects of
expected
Lipitor
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which
information
most is for the nurse to provide to the client about diet
important
modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during
preparation.
, Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
Correct fluid intake to 1000 ml
Restrict
per day. intake of milk and milk products. correct answers Spironolactone
Increase
(Aldactone),
an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in
potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which
can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure,
the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or
increasing
milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this
prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4
divided
over thedoses
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to
implement?
q6h.
Correct
QID
.AC and
bedtime.
PC and bedtime. correct answers Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It
shouldaround-the-clock
taken be (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be
maintained,
thereby decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an adverse effect)
occurring
of too much because
of the drug circulating systemically at any particular time of day.
(B, do
D) C, not
and provide an around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be
givenifwith
food GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule
should still be
maintaine
d.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the
triage
at the nurse
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which
statement
reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to
this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels
can cause
muscle
spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment
to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of
cramping.
C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle
pain
an indication
may be of a serious side effect.
Correct
D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to
enhance the of the drug. correct answers Myopathy, suggested by the
effectiveness
leg pain and
weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of
Lipitor, be
should andevaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although
electrolyte
imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this
is not cause
likely the of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the
healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is
recommended
, for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol
(D), related
not but diettoisthe leg pain
symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which
instruction
most is
important for the nurse to teach this
client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control.
Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet
light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning
pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. correct answers Drugs
classified Xinplace
category the a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy
at risk for
teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be
counseled
reliable form to of
use a control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific
birth
precautionX with
Category drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for
pregnancy
the withprovider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be
healthcare
provided if occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy
pregnancy
explains the
restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not
indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of
pain at the
insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which
intervention
important foristhe
most
nurse to
implement?
A. Assess for
erythema.
B. Administer the
antidote.
C. Apply warm
compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct correct answers Doxorubicin is an
agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon
antineoplastic
extravasation.
First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further
tissue
by the damage
vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted, but
edema
pain at and
the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an
antidote may
available be
(B), additional fluids contribute to the trauma of the
subcutaneous
Depending on tissues.
the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be
prescribed
after the infusion is
discontinued.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin
blocker
II receptor(ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse
reviews the