AASM Sleep Exam 1 Questions and Answers 2024/25 Update

AASM Sleep Exam 1 Questions and Answers 2024/25 Update Test 1 / 400 AASM Sleep Tech Practice Questions Print test Options Term Following RECOMMENDED guidelines, which of the following would be an appropriate time to end an MWT: 1. No sleep at 20 minutes of recording 2. 20 minutes even if sleep occurs earlier 3. A single epoch of N1 4. 3 consecutive epochs of stage N1 Choose matching definition Generalized tonic-clonic seizures In the preauricular behind the ear Continuous positive airway pressure mask 3 consecutive epochs of stage N1 Don't know? 1 of 400 Term Which of these electrodes sites is not typically used in a baseline montage? Choose matching definition Leg EMG E2 Arm EMG Thoracic belt Don't know? 2 of 400 Term Which impedance level is considered acceptable for EMG channels, such as limbs or chin? Choose matching definition Greater than 15kΩ Less than or equal to 10kΩ Less than or equal to 5kΩ Less than or equal to 25kΩ Don't know? 3 of 400 Term During stage N2 sleep, the patient changes position and the tech notes increased snoring and an increasing leak. The tech should: Choose matching definition Increasing CPAP Reposition and adjust PAP interface Decrease pressure release ventilation Increase heated humidification Don't know? 4 of 400 Term The most common reason for changing the PAP interface during titration is: Choose matching definition Sustained desaturations Low sleep efficiency Treatment emergent central apneas Unacceptable leak value Don't know? 5 of 400 Term Using the 10-20 placement system, the C4 lead is located what percentage of the circumference away from the C3 lead? Choose matching definition 20% 30% 40% 50% Don't know? 6 of 400 Term The first step in artifact isolation is: Choose matching definition Correcting the problem by changing channel derivations Changing recorder time base to count signal frequency Identifying the source of the data responsible for that artifact Determining if common signals exist in multiple channels Don't know? 7 of 400 Term Which of the following factors is most likely to cause 60Hz artifact? Choose matching definition High and unequal electrode impedance Incorrect low and high frequency filter settings Incorrect placement of the reference electrodes Direct pressure against one of the electrode Don't know? 8 of 400 Term The tech performs physiologic calibrations in order to: Choose matching definition Assess the function of the computer keyboard Assess the function of the electrical bed Verify electrode response commands Verify the polarity of the electrocardiogram (ECG) Don't know? 9 of 400 Term The electrode located 30% above the left pre-auricular crease is: Choose matching definition C3 P3 O1 F3 Don't know? 10 of 400 Term The emergence of central respiratory events during PAP titration for treatment of obstructive sleep apnea is: Choose matching definition Mixed sleep apnea Hypoventilation syndrome Complex sleep apnea Cheyne-stokes breathing Don't know? 11 of 400 Term In which study does a patient try to stay awake in a darkened room? Choose matching definition MSLT MWT NPSG REM behavior disorder study Don't know? 12 of 400 Term How to calculate percentage of wake time? Choose matching definition Clonazopam/diazepam Anxiety, Insomnia and Seizures Total Plms / Minutes of Sleep X 60 Minutes of W/TSTx100 Lff = 10hz Hff=100hz Don't know? 13 of 400 Term The tech should log which patient info into the computer before the study? Choose matching definition Medical history Time of last nicotine intake Study identification number Time of arrival Don't know? 14 of 400 Term In normal sleep architecture, stage 2 sleep makes up: Choose matching definition 5-10% of total sleep time 25-30% of total sleep time 40-50% of total sleep time 50-60% of total sleep time Don't know? 15 of 400 Term the syndrome characterized by prolonged episodes of severe hypoxemia and associated PaCO2 elevation that worsens during sleep is: Choose matching definition Gastroesophageal reflux Pulmonary hypertension Obesity hypoventilation Upper airway resistance Don't know? 16 of 400 Term The two inferior chin electrodes are placed on the: Choose matching definition Submentalis Mental foremen Mastoid Orbicularis oris Don't know? 17 of 400 Term Twitching movements of the fingers, toes, and mouth that may occur during stage W, non-REM, and REM sleep are known as: Choose matching definition Bruxism Excessive fragmentary myoclonus (EFM) REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) Rhythmic movement disorder (RMD) Don't know? 18 of 400 Term What is the recommended start pressure for pediatric and adult CPAP titration? Choose matching definition 3cmH2O 5cmH2O 4cmH2O 6cmH2O Don't know? 19 of 400 Term What is the normal range of oxygen saturation? Choose matching definition 85-90% 91-94% 95-98% 99-100% Don't know? 20 of 400 Term Dopamine agonists, opioids, anticonvulsants, and benzodiazepines are therapeutic interventions for: Choose matching definition Restless leg syndrome Obstructive sleep apnea Insomnia Circadian rhythm sleep disorder Don't know? 21 of 400 Term What is the RECOMMENDED number of observed hypopneas needed for a pediatric patient before increasing pressure during a titration? 1. 4 2. 3 3. 1 4. 2 Choose matching definition 360 0.5-2Hz 1 All of the above Don't know? 22 of 400 Term Flow monitoring devices that may be used on patients during a sleep study include all of the following EXCEPT: Choose matching definition Nasal/oral thermistor or thermocouple A pressure transducer airflow A transcutaneous carbon dioxide (CO2) monitor An end-tidal CO2 monitor Don't know? 23 of 400 Term ECG artifact in the EEG channels is BEST confirmed by comparing the: Choose matching definition Affected EEG channel(s) with an unaffected channel Alignment of the QRS complex to the artifact Patients pulse rate to that recorded on the EEG Abnormalities on the ECG recording with the artifact Don't know? 24 of 400 Term G1=60µV, G2=10µV. What is the output signal volatage? Choose matching definition -70µV -50µV 70µV 50µV Don't know? 25 of 400 Term The physician's orders indicate that the patient is in the lab for a CPAP titration study; however, the patient insists he has never had a sleep study done before. All of the following solutions would be acceptable to resolve this situation EXCEPT: Choose matching definition Call a member of the lab management team Run the study according to the physicians orders without verification Attempt to contact the ordering physician, and verify the medical intent Look through the patients chart for evidence of a previous study Don't know? 26 of 400 Term Which LFF and HFF combination is RECOMMENDED for routine monitoring of EOG signals?: Choose matching definition LFF 10 Hz, HFF 100 Hz LFF 0.3 Hz, HFF 35 Hz LFF 0.3 Hz, HFF 70 Hz LFF 0.1 Hz, HFF 15 Hz Don't know? 27 of 400 Term What type of calibration is defined as applying a calibration signal of low voltage to all amplifies controls set to values used at the beginning of a study? Choose matching definition Montage Physiologic All channel Signal Don't know? 28 of 400 Term A mixed apnea is characterized by which of the following? Choose matching definition A combination of hypopnea and obstructive characteristics A lack of respiratory effort at the start of the event where respiratory effort returns before the event ends Respiratory effort present at the start of the event where the effort ceases in the second half of the event Intermittent respiratory effort throughout an obstructive event Don't know? 29 of 400 Term What are antihistamines used for? What is an example medication of an antihistamine? Choose matching definition Used to treat allergies Benadryl/Claritin/Allegra Follow protocol for supplemental Oxygen Used to treat bipolar Tegretol/lithium Ongoing hypoventilation or hypoxemia Don't know? 30 of 400 Term The ability of an amplifier to cancel external interference that is common to both input signals is called: Choose matching definition High frequency filter Sampling rate System referencing Common mode rejection Don't know? 31 of 400 Term A patients chart indicates that they use 3.0L/min of oxygen at home. The tech notes that the physicians orders for the PSG specifies starting the study without supplemental oxygen and to add 1.0L/min oxygen if the SpO2 is less than 89%. The BEST action for the tech is to: 1. leave the patient on 3.0L/min for the study 2. Start the study at 1.0L/min 3. Call the physician for confirmation 4. Following the physicians orders Choose matching definition Call the physician for comfirmation Hold the patient down to prevent injury The eyes mirror the EEG frequencies Increase the height of the waveform Don't know? 32 of 400 Term Which two channels on the PSG montage show the highest amplitude of slow-wave sleep? Choose matching definition F3-A2 and F4-A1 O1-A1 and O2-A2 C3-A2 and C4-A1 Cz-O2 and Pz-Oz Don't know? 33 of 400 Term Which of the following is a process performed by a differential amplifier? Choose matching definition Recording the differences in the voltages of two inputs Recording the differences in the voltages of the active input and ground Recording the differences in the voltages of an exploring electrode and the patient ground connection Recording only identical voltages received by its two inputs Don't know? 34 of 400 Term What effects do benzodiazepines have on sleep? Decreases: 6 Increases: 8 (D) Slow Wins Races, 3 People Around (I) Slow Turtle Dances, 1, 2, Rabbits Swim Choose matching definition D= SL, WASO, REM, N3, PLM, Arousals I= SE, TST, N1, N2, Sleep spindles, Restless leg, Sleep apnea, daytime sleepiness Sodium hypochlorite Going to the problem source and replacing and reapplying the affecting leads There is no required decrease in SpO2 Don't know? 35 of 400 Term The patients medical history indicates the patient has been taking tricyclic antidepressants for the past 5 years. The tech should anticipate the patients may have an increased likelihood of: Choose matching definition Complex partial seizures Central sleep apnea REM sleep behavior disorder Restless leg syndrome Don't know? 36 of 400 Term What is the total daily sleep requirement (including both nighttime and daytime naps) for a two-year old infant? Choose matching definition 9.5 hours 10.25 hours 11 hours 13 hours Don't know? 37 of 400 Term Which of the following is FALSE with regard to liquid oxygen? Choose matching definition It is stored at -183 degrees C in special cryogenic containers It is maintained at 18 psi As tanks slowly warm, the oxygen evaporates Touching the fill valve can result in burns Don't know? 38 of 400 Term For home treatment with positive airway pressure, proper humidifier care includes: Choose matching definition Using only tap water for humidification Emptying the water reservoir once per week Washing the reservoir with bleach Rinsing and air-drying the reservoir Don't know? 39 of 400 Term What should the tech do if the patient awakens and complains that the pressure is too high? Choose matching definition Switch the pressures of BIPAP titration Ask the patient to continue trying to return to sleep, and make no changes to the pressure Restart pressure with one that the patient subjectively feels comfortable Reduce pressure to no less than where obstructive apnea was eliminated Don't know? 40 of 400 Term The formula for calculating a PLM index is: Choose matching definition TST x 100 / total PLMs Minutes of sleep / total PLMs x 100 Total PLMs / minutes of sleep x 60 Minutes of sleep / total PLMs x 60 Don't know? 41 of 400 Term The filter typically used to remove power line electrical noise is a: Choose matching definition Low frequency filter Brita filter Notch (60 hz) filter High-frequency filter Don't know? 42 of 400 Term Correct statements about acceptable PAP titration results include all of the following EXCEPT: Choose matching definition It reduces the respiratory disturbance index (RDI) to less than 5 for at least 15-minute duration and should include supine REM sleep at the selected pressure that is not continually interrupted by spontaneous arousals or awakenings It reduces the RDI to 10 or less or by 50% of the baseline RDI less than 15 and should include supine REM sleep that is not continually interrupted by spontaneous arousals or awakenings at the selected pressure It reduced the RDI to less than 5 for at least 15 minutes duration without supine sleep seen at the selected pressure It does not reduce the RDI to 10 or less but reduces the RDI by 50% from baseline in severe patients Don't know? 43 of 400 Term During CPAP titration at 10cm H2O, SpO2 values range between 80-85% for 10 minutes despite absence of respiratory events. What is the BEST action for the tech to take? Choose matching definition Follow protocol for supplemental oxygen Add a backup rate Increase CPAP to 15cmH2O Contract to on call physician for ABG order Don't know? 44 of 400 Term What is it called when a person goes to bed early in the evening and wakes up early in the morning? Choose matching definition Delayed sleep phase syndrome Non-24hour sleep wake disorder Shift work sleep disorder Advanced sleep phase syndrome Don't know? 45 of 400 Term The proper way to score a major body movement-dominated epoch in a recording is described by which of the following? Choose matching definition If an alpha rhythm is present for part of the epoch, score as stage wake If no alpha rhythm can be discerned, but an epoch of stage wake either precedes or follows the epoch with a major body movement, score as stage wake If no alpha rhythm and no stage wake precedes or follows the epoch, score the epoch as the same stage as the epoch that follows it All of the above statements are true about scoring major body movement epochs Don't know? 46 of 400 Term To stage an epoch as N3 sleep, in what percentage of the epoch MUST it's identifiers be present? Choose matching definition 20% 30% 80% 100% Don't know? 47 of 400 Term What are antipsychotics used for? What are some examples of antipsychotic medications? -pine/-done Choose matching definition Used to treat allergies benadryl/claritin/allegra Used to treat psychosis, primarily schizophrenia Risperidone/Clozapine Ongoing hypoventilation or hypoxemia Used to treat bipolar tegretol/lithium Don't know? 48 of 400 Term True statements about how a tech should respond when a patient experiences a seizure include all of the following EXCEPT: Choose matching definition Remove any objects nearby that could injure the patient Hold the patient down to prevent injury Avoid placing anything in the patients mouth or prying the mouth open Avoid giving liquids during or just after the seizure Don't know? 49 of 400 Term All are potential causes of central sleep apnea EXCEPT: Choose matching definition Congestive heart failure Brain stem injury Obesity Neurological disease Don't know? 50 of 400 Term Which of the following medications is used to treat narcolepsy? Choose matching definition Ambien Mirapex Dextroamphetamine Asprin Don't know? 51 of 400 Term The normal Heart Rate is: Choose matching definition 80-100 bpm 60-100 bpm 40 bpm >100 bpm Don't know? 52 of 400 Term During PAP titration, the pressure should be increased until which of the following combinations of events are eliminated? Choose matching definition Apneas and hypopneas Apneas, hypopneas and respiratory event related arousals (RERAs) Apneas, hypopneas, RERAs and snoring Apneas, hypopneas, RERAs, snoring and leg movements Don't know? 53 of 400 Term A pattern of cardiac variability often seen in patient with OSA is: Choose matching definition Persistent tachycardia Persistent bradycardia Tachycardia alternating with bradycardia Prolong QT interval Don't know? 54 of 400 Term What is the frequency of alpha waves? Choose matching definition 7-14Hz 4-7Hz >13Hz 8-13Hz Don't know? 55 of 400 Term What instrument adjustment would BEST enhance visualization of N3 sleep? Choose matching definition Decreasing display gain Decreasing sampling rate LFF 0.1Hz HFF 70 Hz Don't know? 56 of 400 Term A normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a P wave and QRS complex present with each beat, having a QRS interval of: Choose matching definition 1. 0.04 - 0.11 seconds 2. 0.15 - 0.25 seconds 3. 0.2 - 0.9 seconds 4. 2 - 3 seconds Don't know? 57 of 400 Term What is the standard length of time of each epoch during the scoring of stages in a PSG? Choose matching definition 30 seconds 45 seconds 3 minutes 10 minutes Don't know? 58 of 400 Term What is the RECOMMENDED minimum and maximum IPAP-EPAP differential? Choose matching definition 5min/10max 4min/12max 0min/10max 4min/10max Don't know? 59 of 400 Term How do you calculate Total Recording Time (TRT)? Choose matching definition Lights on - Lights out / 2 Lights on - Lights out / 4 Lights on + Lights out / 4 Lights on - Lights out / 0 Don't know? 60 of 400 Term Asking the patient to look left/right and up/down during biocalibrations is intended to mimic which common situation found during healthy sleep? Choose matching definition Eye movements in REM sleep Seizure activity Gently rolling eyes seen in stage N1 sleep Bruxism Don't know? 61 of 400 Term What effect do beta blockers have on sleep? Decreases: 3 Increases: 3 (D) Real Swag Time (I) 1, Walk and Talk Choose matching definition Tracheostomy D= REM density I= REM latency, SWS Sleep disordered breathing during REM D= REM, SWS, TST I= Wakefulness, TWT, N1 Don't know? 62 of 400 Term According the proper discharge procedures, after a sleep study has been completed, the tech should soak and air-dry which of the following pieces of equipment? Choose matching definition Snap electrodes Continuous positive airway pressure mask Snore microphone Body position sensor Don't know? 63 of 400 Term The best way to eliminate artifact is by: Choose matching definition Adjusting the filters Going to the problem source and replacing and reapplying the affecting leads Doing nothing, as they tend to resolve on their own Stopping the study and reapplying all the leads Don't know? 64 of 400 Term What is an example of a Barbituate medication? What is a barbituate used for? -ital Choose matching definition The application of a ground lead wire placed on the head for the psg Clonazopam/diazepam anxiety, insomnia and seizures Brevital/Surital Used as a depressant and anticonvulsant Used to treat bipolar tegretol/lithium Don't know? 65 of 400 Term Adaptive servo ventilation is an effective treatment for which of the following disorders? Choose matching definition Obesity hypoventilation syndrome Nocturnal asthma Hunter-Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome Don't know? 66 of 400 Term A patient is snoring on CPAP 11cmH2O. What is the best course of action for the tech to take? Choose matching definition Lower the CPAP to 10cmH2O Switch to BIPAP 15/10cmH2O Raise the CPAP to 12cmH2O Do nothing. Snoring is not treated by CPAP Don't know? 67 of 400 Term What can be done to improve sweat sway artifacts on the EEG and EOG channels? Choose matching definition Increase the temperature in the room Add extra paste to the electrodes Decrease the temperature in the room, and turn on a fan Reapply the affected electrodes Don't know? 68 of 400 Term When a patient complains of claustrophobia, is unable to tolerate PAP and request to end PSG, the next BEST step is to: Choose matching definition Schedule dessensitization Schedule re-titration study Start APAP therapy Refer to ENT for consultation Don't know? 69 of 400 Term When a patient states they feel like they are suffocating and cannot get enough air when on CPAP, they are most likely complaining of: Choose matching definition Symptoms from low humidity Air hunger Excessive pressure Low oxygenation Don't know? 70 of 400 Term The purpose of physiologic calibrations is to: Choose matching definition Confirm the integrity of the signals Verify signal derivations for each channel Establish certain scoring references for the sleep study All of the above Don't know? 71 of 400 Term The most appropriate action a tech would take when there is confirmed ventricular tachycardia lasting greater than 30 seconds is: Choose matching definition Initiate emergency response system Assess, document and continue to monitor No immediate response needed Discontinue recording and transport to emergency room Don't know? 72 of 400 Term Review of the patient medical history indicates obesity, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and insulin resistance. What syndrome would this represent? Choose matching definition Overlap Obesity-hypoventilation Congenital central hypoventilation Metabolic Don't know? 73 of 400 Term What effects do mood stabilizers like Tegretol and Lithium have on sleep? Tegretol Decreases: 1 Really Tegretol Increases: 1 Someone Was Singing Lithium Decreases: Lithium Increases: 1 Really Loud Choose matching definition Tst/trtx100 T/I= SWS T/D= REM L/I= REM latency Rem Insomnia, drowsiness Don't know? 74 of 400 Term What would increase the resolution of EEG spikes and improve the definition of high frequency activity? Choose matching definition Decreasing the sensitivity Recording with a high sampling rate Using a 100µv input voltage Applying 50/60 Hz filter Don't know? 75 of 400 Term What is a sedative-hypnotic used for? Choose matching definition Clonazopam/diazepam Anxiety, Insomnia And Seizures Used To Treat Allergies Benadryl/claritin/allegra Insomina/anxiety Used To Treat Bipolar Tegretol/lithium Don't know? 76 of 400 Term Criteria necessary to score an arousal in NREM sleep include all of the following EXCEPT: Choose matching definition A concurrent increase in chin EMG 10 seconds of sleep prior to the arousal The arousal must last at least 3 seconds Frequencies greater than 16 Hz, which are not spindles, must occur Don't know? 77 of 400 Term Total # of respiratory events: Obstructive apneas = 14 Central apneas = 2 Mixed apneas = 4 Hypopneas = 16 Total sleep time: 240 minutes What is the apnea index (AI)? 1. 20/hr 2. 4/hr 3. 5/hr 4. 9/hr Choose matching definition 20% 12-14 Hz 15cm 4-6cm Don't know? 78 of 400 Term Which of the following is needed to calculate the apnea/hypopnea index? Choose matching definition Total number of limb movements Oxygen desaturation index Total sleep time Number of heart beats per hour of sleep Don't know? 79 of 400 Term In generalized anxiety disorder, polysomnography is characterized by which of the following? Choose matching definition Increased stage 1 non-REM sleep Increased REM density Quick onset of sleep All of the above Don't know? 80 of 400 Term A side effect of CPAP is: Choose matching definition Aerophagia Intentional leak Hyperventilation CO2 retention Don't know? 81 of 400 Term The standard paper speed used for a sleep study is: Choose matching definition 30mm/sec 10mm/sec 5mm/sec 1mm/sec Don't know? 82 of 400 Term What is the recommended number of observed apneas needed for an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration? 1. 5 2. 1 3. 3 4. 2 Choose matching definition 3 3.2cm 2.8cm 2 Don't know? 83 of 400 Term Which of these factors does not tend to increase impedances? Choose matching definition Increased site preparation Broke/faulty wires Dirty electrodes Poor application Don't know? 84 of 400 Term Electrical safety requires all of the following actions from a tech EXCEPT: Choose matching definition Checking the conditions of wires to assure none are frayed or damaged The applications of a ground placed with the pulse oximetry probe The application of a ground lead wire placed on the head for the PSG Keeping liquid away from all electrical components Don't know? 85 of 400 Term Which of the following filter settings are most appropriate for recording EMG channels? Choose matching definition LFF = 10Hz HFF=100Hz LFF=1Hz, HFF=30Hz LFF=0.3Hz, HFF=30Hz LFF=0.1Hz, HFF=0.5Hz Don't know? 86 of 400 Term The amount of space needed to archive digitized data is most impacted by: Choose matching definition Filter settings Sampling rate Epoch size Sensitivity Don't know? 87 of 400 Term What are SSRIs used for? Choose matching definition Used to treat infections and boost immunity Used to manage chronic pain and inflammation Used to promote weight loss and appetite control Used to treat major depression and anxiety Don't know? 88 of 400 Term NPSG stands for_________________________. Choose matching definition Nighttime polysomnogram Nocturnal patient sleep graph Normal polysomnogram Nocturnal polysomnogram Don't know? 89 of 400 Term Which of the following is NOT a way to decrease the amount of condensation in humidifier tubing? Choose matching definition Using heated tubing Reducing the level of humidification Insulating the tubing Decreasing room temperature at night Don't know? 90 of 400 Term The most desirable sampling rate for the respiratory airflow signal is: Choose matching definition 1Hz 25Hz 100Hz 500Hz Don't know? 91 of 400 Term What effects does nicotine have on sleep? Decreases: Increases: 4 (I) People Bypass People Shallow Breathing Slowly By Watching from Afar Choose matching definition M1 and M2 being placed directly on the auricular branch of the posterior auricular artery Splits the airway to allow breaths to pass through without occlusion D= N/a I= BP, Pulse, Stimulates brain wave activity and shallow breathing It measures the percentage of packed white blood cells in 100ml of blood Don't know? 92 of 400 Term What effect do opiods/opiates have on sleep? Decreases: 4 (R, SWS, TST, SE) Increases: 2 (W,1) Some Way Someone Sees Everything. Time Starts Today. Ready? only 1 Wins Choose matching definition Ground loop D= REM density I= REM latency, SWS D= N/a I= BP, Pulse, Stimulates brain wave activity and shallow breathing D= REM, SWS, TST, SE I= N1, wakefulness Don't know? 93 of 400 Term What effects do Barbiturate's have on sleep? Decreases: 7 (D) Whats Around Sleepong Obscuely? Sleeping Late is A Banned Movement Read it in section 1 & 3 Increases: 6 (I) SEction 2 States Already That Someone Told Really Late Dark Sleeping is bad. Choose matching definition D= REM density I= REM latency, SWS D= SL, WASO, N1, N3, REM, arousals, body movements I= SE, TST, N2, RL, SA, daytime sleepiness Going to the problem source and replacing and reapplying the affecting leads D= SE, TST, SWS, REM I= SL, WASO, N1, REM latency Don't know? 94 of 400 Term Which of the following statements about the removal of paste residue from the patients in the morning is true? Choose matching definition The paste never needs to be removed Only remove the paste if the patient asks Remove the paste if the patient is physically unable Always remove remnants of paste from the patients body Don't know? 95 of 400 Term What is an antidepressant used for? Choose matching definition Used to treat physical pain and discomfort Used to treat depression, anxiety, PTSD and OCD Used to enhance memory and cognitive function Used to induce sleep and manage insomnia Don't know? 96 of 400 Term Which of the following constitutes good sleep hygiene? Choose matching definition Drinking alcohol before going to bed Watching TV in bed right before trying to go to sleep Getting up to do something relaxing after 20 minutes in bed Taking naps during the day Don't know? 97 of 400 Term The artifacts that are most likely to cause high-amplitude, low frequency waves seen on the EEG are: Choose matching definition EKG artifact 60 Hz artifact Respiratory artifact EOG artifact Don't know? 98 of 400 Term A _____ study is used to look for seizure activity during sleep Choose matching definition NPSG Nocturnal seizure Nocturnal epileptiform Night seizure Don't know? 99 of 400 Term Required criteria for scoring an apneic event for an adult include all of the following EXCEPT: Choose matching definition The event lasts no longer than 30 seconds. There is no maximum time limit for how long an obstructive apneic event can be. There are guidelines for resuming normal breath or renaturations of 2% or more defining the end of an event, but there is no hard cap on how long those events can be to qualify for scoring criteria There is a 90% or more drop from baseline in the thermal sensor channel The duration of the event lasts at least 10 seconds At least 90% of the event must meet the 90% drop from baseline criteria Don't know? 100 of 400 Term A mixed apnea _____ Choose matching definition Starts with a central component that then become obstructive Starts with an obstructive component that then becomes central Is characterized by a crescendo-decrescendo breathing pattern Is caused by CPAP pressure being too high Don't know? 101 of 400 Term In communicating with deaf patients, the interviewer should: Choose matching definition Announce his or her presence by speaking, to see if the patient can lip-read Face the interpreter Eat when speaking to the patient Do none of the above Don't know? 102 of 400 Term What is the most important aspect of fielding a patients questions in the morning following the sleep study? Choose matching definition To be positive and avoid alarming the patient To give the patient as many details about their results as possible To be vague and avoid giving straight answers To defer all questions the patient has to be the physician Don't know? 103 of 400 Term Which is not a therapeutic intervention for narcolepsy? Choose matching definition Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) Methlephenidate Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) Diet and exercise Don't know? 104 of 400 Term Overcompensation for mask or mouth leaks when using auto-titrating CPAP (APAP) is MOST likely to result in: Choose matching definition Unnecessarily high pressure Complex sleep apnea Increased compliance pneumothorax Don't know? 105 of 400 Term What is the frequency of Delta waves? Choose matching definition 0.5-2Hz 8-13Hz 4-7Hz >13Hz Don't know? 106 of 400 Term The most common method to monitor blood oxygen saturation during polysomnography is: Choose matching definition Pulse oximetry Capnography Arterial blood gas End-tidal CO2 Don't know? 107 of 400 Term Real time access to PAP compliance data is an example of: Choose matching definition Quality improvement Patient acclimation Efficacy monitoring Intentional leak Don't know? 108 of 400 Term Central sleep apnea can be seen in all of the following sleep stages EXCEPT: Choose matching definition N1 REM N2 N3 (slow wave sleep) Don't know? 109 of 400 Term Paradoxical breathing is identified by channel deflections that are: Choose matching definition in phase in respiratory effort and out of phase in airflow out of phase in airflow with respiratory effort remaining flat In phase in airflow and in phase in respiratory effort out of phase in respiratory effort with airflow remaining flat Don't know? 110 of 400 Term Which of the following is part of the Centers for Disease Control's isolation guidelines? Choose matching definition Maintaining a distance of at least 15 feet from a coughing person when possible Using sterile single-use needles and syringes multiple times Washing hands after contact with respiratory secretions Using hand sanitizer after each patient contact Don't know? 111 of 400 Term Antidepressants suppress which stage of sleep? Choose matching definition Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 REM Don't know? 112 of 400 Term Excessive warming and humidification will cause: Choose matching definition Inaccurate CPAP pressures Water to pool in the CPAP tubing Increase in the intentional leak Decrease in unintentional leak Don't know? 113 of 400 Term What is the RECOMMENDED decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as an hypopnea? Choose matching definition 4% 2% 3% 5% Don't know? 114 of 400 Term K complexes are often seen Choose matching definition In stage 1 sleep In stage 2 sleep In stage 3 sleep In REM Don't know? 115 of 400 Term The symbol "G1" represents? Choose matching definition The exploring electrode The reference electrode The patient ground The output of a differential amplifier to the polysomnograph Don't know? 116 of 400 Term If a patient has issues with mouth breathing while using a nasal-only mask, in which order should the tech work to alleviate the problem? Choose matching definition Apply a chin strap, attempt to flex the comfort setting, and then switch to a full face mask Apply a chin strap, apply or increase heated humidity, offer nasal spray for congestion, attempt to flex comfort settings and then switch to a full face mask Apply or increase heated humidity settings, offer nasal spray for congestion, apply a chin strap, attempt to flex the comfort settings, and then switch to a full face mask Immediately switch to a full face mask Don't know? 117 of 400 Term The number of events that occur within a particular period of time is called: Choose matching definition Frequency Amplitude Polarity Duration Don't know? 118 of 400 Term When airflow changes do not meet the criteria for obstructive apnea or hypopneas, respiratory effort event related arousals can be estimated by: Choose matching definition Detection of vibration by using piezoelectric transducers Flattening of the inspiratory airflow profile associated with an arousal Sawtooth patterns in the unfiltered airflow or mask pressure tracing Measuring the pressure difference between the mask and the machine outlet Don't know? 119 of 400 Term What has the largest impact on adherence to PAP therapy? Choose matching definition Sleep duration Severity of snoring Type of equipment Patient education Don't know? 120 of 400 Term The goals of PAP therapy include all of the following EXCEPT to: Choose matching definition Improve diminished lung capacity eliminate flow limitations in the upper airway Eliminate excessive daytime somnolence Eliminate snoring Don't know? 121 of 400 Term Following proper prep swabbing, the skin at the prep site should be in which of the following conditions? Choose matching definition Abraded and clear of debris Top layer of skin removed Smooth and clean Red and irritated Don't know? 122 of 400 Term One criterion for scoring pediatric respiratory effort-related arousals (RERA's) is that nasal pressure is reduced by what percentage, compared to baseline? Choose matching definition 10% 15% 50% 90% Don't know? 123 of 400 Term Actigraphy is the: Choose matching definition Measurement and quantification of REM movements Recording and analysis of the nondominant wrist movements Recording of leg movements Home sleep testing Don't know? 124 of 400 Term Calculate the Sleep Efficiency Index (SEI or SE) Choose matching definition Lff 0.3 / Hff 35 Stage 3 Total Plms / Minutes Of Sleep X 60 TST/TRTx100 Don't know? 125 of 400 Term Which of these does not tend to increase leakage current? Choose matching definition Shorter power cord Power strips Battery backups Parallel placement of wires Don't know? 126 of 400 Term Each P wave in a normal sinus heart rhythm is associated with: Choose matching definition Two or more QRS complexes A single QRS complex A premature ventricular contraction Sinus arrhythmia Don't know? 127 of 400 Term Sudden, involuntary, abnormal electrical disturbances in the brain that can manifest as alterations of consciousness, convulsions, and loss of consciousness are known as: Choose matching definition Generalized tonic-clonic seizures Primary generalized myoclonic epilepsy Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis West syndrome Don't know? 128 of 400 Term What effect do stimulants have on sleep? Decreases: 4 Increases: 4 (D) Really? Someone Was Swimming? Todays So Toasty. Swim Everyone! (I)Sleeping Late Was Also So Obscure. it was a Really Late 1 Choose matching definition D= SE, TST, SWS, REM I= SL, WASO, N1, REM latency To be positive and avoid alarming the patient Total sleep time (TST) decreases to pre-pregnancy levels Used to treat bipolar Tegretol/Lithium Don't know? 129 of 400 Term A 43-year old male who is 5'8 tall and weights 275 lbs, with no history of smoking or alcohol abuse, complains of trouble falling asleep, headaches, and daytime fatigue. His wife complains that his legs are kicking her while she is asleep. He most likely has: Choose matching definition Obstructive sleep apnea Central sleep apnea Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern PLMS Don't know? 130 of 400 Term What is the frequency at which eye blinking occurs? Choose matching definition 3-4Hz 2-4Hz 0.5-2Hz 1-3Hz Don't know? 131 of 400 Term Which of the following is a safe guideline for identifying what actions and observations should be documented by the tech? Choose matching definition Document only things the physician cannot identify through viewing the raw data When in doubt, document everything; the tech can never document too much Only document actions that are listed in policy and procedures specificially Only document things the patient is doing that are out of the ordinary Don't know? 132 of 400 Term The primary benefit for heated humidification is to: Choose matching definition Help reduce nasal congestion Minimize hypoventilation Enhance oxygenation Increase REM Sleep Don't know? 133 of 400 Term What is the most likely sensitivity setting for the EEG in a polysomnogram? Choose matching definition 3 uV/mm 15 uV/mm 7uV/mm 1uV/mm Don't know? 134 of 400 Term The measured distance from the nasion to the inion is 32cm. What is the distance from the inion to Oz? 1. 3.2cm 2. 6.4cm 3. 2.8cm 4. 1.6cm Choose matching definition 0.5 Hz >5/hr 16/hr 3.2cm Don't know? 135 of 400 Term A patient is snoring on CPAP at 11 cwp. What is the best course of action for the tech to take? Choose matching definition Lower the CPAP to 10 cwp Switch to BIPAP 15/10 cwp Raise the CPAP to 12 cwp Do nothing. Snoring is not treated by CPAP Don't know? 136 of 400 Term Lights off: 23:30 Lights on: 05:30 Sleep onset: 00:30 Total NREM sleep time (min): 230 Total REM sleep time (min): 45 What is the sleep efficiency (rounded to the nearest percentage) Choose matching definition 70% 89% 76% 74% Don't know? 137 of 400 Term One criterion for scoring pediatric obstructive sleep apnea is that, compared to baseline, there is a 90% or greater decrease in amplitude for at least what percentage of events? Choose matching definition 25% 50% 80% 90% Don't know? 138 of 400 Term What is the minimum recording time for a study? Choose matching definition 2 hours 4 hours 6 hours 8 hours Don't know? 139 of 400 Term REM behavior disorders in usually treated with Choose matching definition CPAP Medications such as benzodiazepines, Sinemet, and clonidine Medications such as Ambien, Lunesta or Sonata Medications such a Provigil, Ritalin or Dexedrine Don't know? 140 of 400 Term Morning/evening questionnaires ask the patient to indicate which of the following: Choose matching definition How the patient feels in the morning after going to sleep at 9PM The five consecutive hours during the day that the patient would prefer to work The patients appetite two hours after awakening All of the above Don't know? 141 of 400 Term Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY effect of zolpidem and zaleplon on sleep architecture? Choose matching definition No observed changes Increased sleep latency Decreased stage R Increased sleep efficiency Don't know? 142 of 400 Term Which of the following is the RECOMMENDED impedance level for EEG electrodes? Choose matching definition less than 10kΩ Less than 5kΩ Less than 5Ω At least 10Ω Don't know? 143 of 400 Term What is the range of normal scores on the Fatigue Severity Scale? Choose matching definition 5-15 5-20 9-25 9-35 Don't know? 144 of 400 Term The failure to remove electrode paste residue will most likely result in: Choose matching definition Discarded electrodes Enhanced artifact Improved detergent selection Improvement in adherence Don't know? 145 of 400 Term According to the AASM scoring manual, a pause in the heart rate for 3 seconds or longer is called? Choose matching definition Asystole Bradycardia Prolonged QT interval Premature ventricular contraction Don't know? 146 of 400 Term When should tech test their equipment for accuracy and function? Choose matching definition After the equipment is connected to the patient In the morning after the study is over Immediately on arriving at the lab and before the patients arrive Never, only management should test the equipment Don't know? 147 of 400 Term If the total circumference of a head is 58cm, using the 10-20 placement system, what is the distance between C3 and O1? 1. 14.5cm 2. 29cm 3. 11.6cm 4. 2.9cm Choose matching definition 29cm Cardiac output Normal 84% Don't know? 148 of 400 Term When electrical signals from external sources interfere with signals derived from the patient, this is referred to as: Choose matching definition Resistance Stray capacitance Cell potential Biopotentiallity Don't know? 149 of 400 Term What should the tech do first to make sure the proper test is being performed? Choose matching definition Contact the physician Ask the patient for a chief complaint Review the chart for the physicians order Perform physiological callibrations Don't know? 150 of 400 Term Lights off: 23:30 Lights on: 05:30 Sleep onset: 00:30 Total NREM sleep time (min): 230 Total REM sleep time (min): 45 What is the percentage of NREM sleep (rounded to the nearest percentage)? Choose matching definition 20% 16% 15% 84% Don't know? 151 of 400 Term Which filter would be used to adjust the rise time of a signal? Choose matching definition The LFF The HFF The gain The sensitivity Don't know? 152 of 400 Term The purpose of the material safety data sheet is to: Choose matching definition Provide information to patients about proper use of products Absolve the manufacturer of responsibility for products Provide workers with procedures for handling and storage of products Provide methods for testing and rating the safety of potentially dangerous products Don't know? 153 of 400 Term Alcohol can suppress which stage(s) of sleep? Choose matching definition Stage 2 Stage 3 NREM Stage 1 Don't know? 154 of 400 Term Lights off: 23:30 Lights on: 05:30 Sleep onset: 00:30 Total NREM sleep time (min): 230 Total REM sleep time (min): 45 What is the total sleep time (TST), in minutes? Choose matching definition 275 360 300 230 Don't know? 155 of 400 Term What is the RECOMMENDED number of observed hypopneas needed in an adult patient before increasing pressure during a titration? 1. 1 2. 3 3. 2 4. 4 Choose matching definition 275 5 minutes 4min/10max 3 Don't know? 156 of 400 Term How do you calculate Total Sleep Time (TST)? Choose matching definition N1+N2+N3+R/2 Advanced Sleep Phase Syndrome Lff 0.1hz Used To Treat Bipolar Tegretol/lithium Don't know? 157 of 400 Term On which muscles are the leg EMG leads placed, and how far apart should they be from one another? Choose matching definition Calf muscles, 4cm apart Anterior tibialis, 6cm apart Calf muscles, 2cm apart Anterior tibialis, 2cm apart Don't know? 158 of 400 Term What are two things antidepressants can do to sleep? I, D Choose matching definition Insomnia, drowsiness Position changes Nocturnal seizure Rem Don't know? 159 of 400 Term What is the recommended minimum/maximum differential for IPAP and EPAP settings during a BIPAP titration? Choose matching definition 6-10cm apart 2-8cm apart 4-6cm apart 4-10cm apart Don't know? 160 of 400 Term Atrial fibrillation is characterized by all of the following EXPECT: Choose matching definition An atrial rate of 120-200 beats/min and a ventricular rate of 300-600 beats/min Normal shape and duration of the QRS complex The presence of fibrillatory (F) waves instead of P waves A highly variable P:QRS ratio Don't know? 161 of 400 Term Which electrode site is 10% above the inion Choose matching definition Fpz T3 OZ T4 Don't know? 162 of 400 Term The physician's orders indicate the patient is in the lab for a CPAP titration study; however, the patient insists he has never had a sleep study before. All of the following solutions would be acceptable to resolve this situation EXCEPT: 1. Attempt to contact the ordering physician, and verify the medical intent 2. Call a member of the lab management team 3. Run the study according to the physician's orders without verification 4. Look through the patients chart for evidence of a previous study Choose matching definition Thermocouples generate their own electricity while thermistors do not Call the physician for comfirmation D= SL, REM I= Wakefulness, NREM, Sleep apnea duration and worsens OSA Run the study according to the physicians orders without verification Don't know? 163 of 400 Term According to the RECOMMENDED guidelines, portable monitoring is an appropriate choice for: Choose matching definition Monitoring a patients response to oral appliance therapy Assessing patients with low baseline oxygen saturation Screening patients with a low probability of OSA Diagnosing Hypoventilation Syndrome Don't know? 164 of 400 Term How to calculate Wake after sleep onset (WASO)? Choose matching definition Increasing the height of the waveform Total minutes awake before sleep onset Total minutes scored W between the epoch of sleep onset and the last epoch scored as sleep Total minutes spent in deep sleep Don't know? 165 of 400 Term All of the following statements are true about the changes seen from stage N2 to N3 EXCEPT: Choose matching definition Sleep spindles may persist into stage N3 sleep Eye movements are not typically seen EMG chin activity is often higher than in stage N2 Delta activity reaches 20% or more in the epoch Don't know? 166 of 400 Term What effects does alcohol have on sleep? Decreases: 2 Increases: 4 (D) Ready to SLead? (I) What? Nobody Said Anything Disrespectful? Where Outside is Sunny Around? Choose matching definition A muscle spasm during the transition from wakefulness to sleep To produce education, guidance and ongoing support for sleep apnea Going to the problem source and replacing and reapplying the affecting leads D= SL, REM I= Wakefulness, NREM, Sleep apnea duration and worsens OSA Don't know? 167 of 400 Term Good sleep hygiene includes: Choose matching definition Daytime napping Positional therapy Regular daily activities OCT sleep aids Don't know? 168 of 400 Term Sleep state misperception is also known as: Choose matching definition Paradoxical insomnia Circadian rhythm disorder Idiopathic hypersomnia Behavioral insomnia Don't know? 169 of 400 Term All of the following are indications that a patient is entering stage N1 sleep from the wake stage EXPECT: Choose matching definition The eyes mirror the EEG frequencies Alpha frequencies in occipital channels have reduced or stopped entirely There is a reduction in chin EMG amplitude the eyes roll gently Don't know? 170 of 400 Term Brady-trachycardia is noted on a sleep study. Which of the following is the BEST tech response? Choose matching definition Order 12-lead ECG Assess patient and document Immediately contact the physician Initiate emergency response system Don't know? 171 of 400 Term The capnograph is reading zero on the patient and on the tech who tests the cannula. The most likely cause of the equipment failure is: Choose matching definition The power is off The patient is a mouth-breather The cannula is faulty The patients secretions have reached the infrared potion of the tubing Don't know? 172 of 400 Term What is an example of a non-benzodiazepine medication? "Z-drugs" Choose matching definition Lff 0.3 / Hff 35 Used To Treat Allergies Benadryl/claritin/allegra Clonazopam/diazepam Anxiety, Insomnia And Seizures Zolpidem/Zipiclone/Zaleplon Don't know? 173 of 400 Term What are beta-blockers used for? Choose matching definition Used to treat bipolar tegretol/lithium The eyes mirror the eeg frequencies Used to block epinephrine and norepinephrine Used to treat allergies benadryl/claritin/allegra Don't know? 174 of 400 Term INCREASING the gain would result in what change in the EEG waveform? Choose matching definition Decrease the height of the waveform Attenuate the high frequencies eliminate slow wave artifact Increase the height of the waveform Don't know? 175 of 400 Term During a CPAP titration study a patient at a CPAP pressure of 15 cm who is still snoring and having hypopneas complains that the pressure feels too high and she cannot sleep. What should the tech do? Choose matching definition Leave the CPAP at 15cm and wait for the patient to fall back asleep Lower the CPAP pressure to 13cm and wait for the patient to fall back to sleep before raising it again Raise the CPAP pressure to 17cm Switch to BIPAP of 15/11cm and continue the titration Don't know? 176 of 400 Term G1 and G2 represent: Choose matching definition The first signal input and the ground lead, respectively The ground lead and the first signal input, respectively The first signal input and the second signal input, respectively The ground lead and the exploring electrode, respectively Don't know? 177 of 400 Term What condition would require a full face mask or oral mask during a CPAP study? Choose matching definition The patient is claustrophobic The patient has a deviated septum The patient feels congested The patient is a mouth breather Don't know? 178 of 400 Term Which EEG electrode is half the distance from O1 to T3? Choose matching definition C3 P3 T5 Oz Don't know? 179 of 400 Term The 60-Hz notch filter is used to eliminate Choose matching definition Artifact from the EKG Sweat artifact Artifact generated from electrical devices Muscle artifact Don't know? 180 of 400 Term CO2 monitoring, using either end-tidal or transcutaneous sensors, is mandatory in children for the scoring of: Choose matching definition Apnea Hypopnea Central events Hypoventilation Don't know? 181 of 400 Term Which of the following is true about CPAP mask leaks? Choose matching definition There cannot be an clinical leak for a successful titration There may be some leak present, depending on the mask style The acceptable leak value varies from patient to patient Leaks should be within the manufactures recommended range and not causing sleep fragmentation Don't know? 182 of 400 Term According to scoring guidelines of the American Academy of Sleep Medicine, which piece of equipment is used to identify hypopnea? Choose matching definition Thermal sensor Nasal air pressure transducer Capnograph None of the above Don't know? 183 of 400 Term Which of the following is characteristic of sleep during the second trimester of pregnancy? 1. Total sleep time (TST) decreased to pre-pregnancy levels 2. Slow-wave sleep (SWS) decreases 3. REM sleep decreases 4. Shortness of breath decreases Choose matching definition It measures the percentage of packed white blood cells in 100ml of blood Total sleep time (TST) decreases to pre-pregnancy levels Washing hands after contact with respiratory secretions At all 10% up-markings on the head starting and ending at FPz Don't know? 184 of 400 Term Patients who suffer from frequent sinus infections should be advised not to wear which of the following masks? 1. Nasal masks 2. All of these answer choices 3. Full face masks 4. Nasal-pillow masks Choose matching definition Inside the gold up Parasomnias Nasal pillow masks Nocturnal seizure Don't know? 185 of 400 Term Which of the following EEG waveforms are in the correct order from the highest to the lowest frequency? Choose matching definition Beta, delta, theta and alpha Delta, alpha, beta and theta Beta, theta, delta, alpha Beta, alpha, theta, delta Don't know? 186 of 400 Term What are some possible causes for secondary PLMS? Choose matching definition Blood iron deficiency Congestive heart failure Muscle injuries Heart disease Don't know? 187 of 400 Term The respiratory event that requires oxygen desaturation and/ or an arousal as part of the scoring criteria is: Choose matching definition Obstructive hypopnea Mixed apnea Hypoventilation Cheyne stokes Don't know? 188 of 400 Term Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) that are too high may cause: Choose matching definition Excessive sneezing Arousals and unwanted changes in respiratory patterns Increase in oxygen satuartion More obstructive apneas Don't know? 189 of 400 Term What effects do antipsychotics have on sleep? Decreases: 1 Increases: 2 (D) Really Dead (I) in Real Life Someone Watches Someone Choose matching definition D= REM density I= REM latency, SWS D= rem latency, rem i= plms, restless leg syndrome, rem behavior disorder Rem D= sl, rem i= wakefulness, nrem, sleep apnea duration and worsens osa Don't know? 190 of 400 Term What is a hypnagogic jerk? Choose matching definition 1. A muscle spasm during the transition from stage 1 stage 2 sleep 2. A muscle spasm during the transition from stage 2 to REM sleep 3. A muscle spasm during the transition from sleep to wakefulness 4. A muscle spasm during the transition from wakefulness to sleep Don't know? 191 of 400 Term Obstructive sleep apnea is normally at its worst when the patient is: Choose matching definition In stage 2 on their side In REM on their back In stage 3 on their side In stage 2 on their side Don't know? 192 of 400 Term Which of these devices produces its own electricity? Choose matching definition Thermistor Oximeter Piezo-electric crystal band Actigraph Don't know? 193 of 400 Term True statements about the process of biocalibrations include all of the following EXCEPT: Choose matching definition The tech notes should reflect the movements made by the patient The patient should be supine and still throughout biocalibrations Biocalibrations are done at the beginning of the study only Nasal and oral breathing are done on the NPSGs only Don't know? 194 of 400 Term Which of the following is NOT true of EEG during stage 2 non-REM sleep? Choose matching definition There are periods between K complexes or sleep spindles of less than 3 minutes that are unrelated to arousals Delta activity is less than 20% of the epoch Abrupt K complex clusters and delta waves may indicate arousals Activity is high voltage Don't know? 195 of 400 Term Which of the following are the recommended impedance levels for the EEG electrodes? Choose matching definition Less than 20,000 ohms Less than 5 ohms Less then 5k ohms At least 20,000 ohms Don't know? 196 of 400 Term According to the RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring arousals in adults, which of the following is the BEST statement? Choose matching definition Scoring of arousals during stage R requires either an increase in submental EMG or an increase in leg EMG The 10 seconds of sleep required prior to scoring an arousal may begin to the preceding epoch, even if that epoch is scored as stage W Abrupt shifts in EEG frequency associated with arousal can include alpha, theta, spindles, and or frequencies greater than 16 Hz Information should be incorporated from the majority of EEG channels Don't know? 197 of 400 Term When periodic limb movements of sleep are scored as an event, which of the following is false? Choose matching definition An event ranges in duration from 0.5-10 seconds, with an EMG amplitude of 8uv or more Timing of the event begins at the point of an 8uv increase on EMG Timing of the event ends with a period, lasting 0.5 seconds longer, during which EMG doesnt not rise more than 2uv An event requires four or more consecutive leg movements with the interval between movements ranging from 5-90 seconds Don't know? 198 of 400 Term The electrode array used for recording physiologic activity is referred to as: Choose matching definition Polarity Sensitivity Impedance Montage Don't know? 199 of 400 Term Delta waves must be how many microvolts (µV) in amplitude to count toward stage N3 sleep percentages?. Choose matching definition 75µV 30µV 100µV 55µV Don't know? 200 of 400 Term While in the sleep lab, a patient has to do all the following EXCEPT: Choose matching definition Have PSG equipment attached to the body Sign a consent form Remain supine for the entire study Remain connected to equipment for at least 6 hours Don't know? 201 of 400 Term What percentage drop in the SpO2 data must be seen to score an obstructive event? Choose matching definition 3% or more 4% or more 5% or more No required drop in the SpO2 channel Don't know? 202 of 400 Term To ensure REM sleep has a chance to occur during a multiple sleep latency test nap, how long should the nap continue? Choose matching definition 25 minutes following "lights out" 15 minutes following sleep onset 15 minutes following "lights out" 20 minutes following sleep onset Don't know? 203 of 400 Term Which of the following would be a contradiction of PAP therapy? Choose matching definition GERD Rhinitis COPD Tracheostomy Don't know? 204 of 400 Term Which of the following low-frequency/high-frequency filter settings appropriately isolate the significant frequency ranges in the EEG channels? 1. 0.1/35 2. 0.3/35 3. 0.5/35 4. 1.0/35 Choose matching definition Acetylcholine 0.3/35 Sodium hypochlorite Sweat Don't know? 205 of 400 Term Oral appliance is an alternative option for patients with: Choose matching definition Hypoventilation Central apnea Restrictive lung disease Mild obstructive sleep apnea Don't know? 206 of 400 Term Obstructive apnea in pediatric patients is most often associated with: Choose matching definition Idiopathic hype somnolence Hypothyroidism Hyperactivity Overlap syndrome Don't know? 207 of 400 Term The preferred type of amplifier in polysomnography is: Choose matching definition Single ended Triple ended Differential Multifrequency Don't know? 208 of 400 Term During a PAP titration, signal flattening in the nasal pressure monitor indicates: Choose matching definition Snoring Hypoventilation Central apnea Flow limitation Don't know? 209 of 400 Term One of the MOST important roles of the recording tech is to: Choose matching definition Score sleep stages prior to applying treatment Document any changes in recording parameters Record interpretation of patient comments and actions Assure patient completes the pre-sleep questionnaire Don't know? 210 of 400 Term Total # of respiratory events: Obstructive apneas = 14 Central apneas = 2 Mixed apneas = 4 Hypopneas = 16 Total sleep time: 240 minutes What is the hypopnea index (HI)? Choose matching definition 36/hr 4/hr 16/hr 9/hr Don't know? 211 of 400 Term Which of the following is an adequate chemical disinfectant used to clean surfaces? Choose matching definition Oxirane Formaldehyde Sodium hypochlorite Isoflurane Don't know? 212 of 400 Term The polysomnograph has taken a leakage current of 200uA. What should the tech do about this? Choose matching definition Plug the equipment into an ungrounded plug to avoid a ground loop Do not use the equipment until the leakage current is lowered Continue to record since the leakage current is within acceptable limits Use an extra grounding electrode on the patient Don't know? 213 of 400 Term Appropriate values for scoring sinus bradycardia/tachycardia include which of the following? Choose matching definition Heart rate < 40 beats/min ; heart rate > 90 beats/min Heart rate < 60 beats/min ; heart rate > 100 beats/min Heart rate < 55 beats/min ; heart rate > 95 beats/min Heart rate <5 beats/min ; heart rate > 90 beats/min Don't know? 214 of 400 Term Which of the following arrhythmias qualifies as a medical emergency? Choose matching definition Premature atrial beats Unsustained sinus tachycardia Junctional escape rhythm Third-degree atrioventricular block Don't know? 215 of 400 Term The BEST way for the tech to explain how CPAP helps eliminate obstructive apnea is to explain that: Choose matching definition CPAP splints the obstructive airway open Chemoreceptors will reset and eliminate apnea There are separate pressures for inspiration and expiration The airway typically collapses at the end of inspiration Don't know? 216 of 400 Term Why is precise measurement of the head important of a PSG? Choose matching definition Artifacts can be caused by improper placement of electrodes Is is important for the identification of sleep onset and specific sleep stages Observation of important waveforms require precise electrode placement All of these answer choices are true Don't know? 217 of 400 Term Where is the tape measure placed when measuring the circumference of the head? Choose matching definition At all 10% up-markings on the head starting and ending at FPz At the inion and nasion Where the tape measure naturally lies with the patients head shape Right above the ears Don't know? 218 of 400 Term Key things to look for in REM behavior disorder montage are: Choose matching definition Muscle movements, increased chin EMG activity, and obstructive apneas in REM Musc