BCCCP Exam Questions and answers |
With complete solution Newest 2024/25
Rated A+
2 classes of NMBA, MOA, and examples - Correct Answers 1. Depolarizing: binds and
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
activates acetylcholine receptors causing persistent depolarization (succinylcholine)
II II II II II II II
2. Nondepolarizing: blocks the action of acetylcholine and the neuromuscular junction (all
II II II II II II II II II II II
others - vec, roc, atra, cisatra)
II II II II II II
2 medications in the Orange Book with a B rating - Correct Answers pharmaceutical
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
equivalents only and cannot be interchanged
II II II II II II
2 medications in the Orange Book with an A rating - Correct Answers Both
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
pharmaceutical equivalents and bioequivalents and can be interchanged
II II II II II II II II
4T score: other causes of platelet fall - Correct Answers 2 points: none evident
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
1 point: possible
II II
0 points: definite
II II
4T score: pretest probability scores - Correct Answers Low positive predictive value:
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
High: 6-8 points II II
Intermediate: 4-5 points II II
High negative predictive value:
II II II
Low: 0-3 points II II
4T score: thrombocytopenia - Correct Answers 2 points: >50% platelet fall to nadir >20
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
1 point: 30-50% platelet fall, or nadir 10-19
II II II II II II II
0 points: <30% platelet fall, or nadir <10
II II II II II II II
4T score: thrombosis - Correct Answers 2 points: proven new thrombosis, skin
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
necrosis, or acute systemic reaction after IV UFH bolus
II II II II II II II II II
1 point: progressive or recurrent thrombosis or suspected thrombosis
II II II II II II II II
0 points: no thrombosis
II II II
4T score: Timing - Correct Answers 2 points: Days 5-10, or <1 day with recent heparin
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
exposure (past 30 days)
II II II II
1 point: >10 days of timing unclear, or <1 day with recent heparin exposure (past 31-100
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
days)
II
0 points: <day 4 with no recent heparin exposure
II II II II II II II II
II 5 trace elements in PN
II II II II
,Which would you withhold for patients with hepatobiliary/cholestatic liver disease?
II II II II II II II II II
Which would you without in renal impairment (without RRT)? - Correct Answers Zinc,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
copper, chromium, manganese, selenium
II II II II
Copper and manganese II II
Selenium
A course or plan of action which establishes standards of practice or quality/compliance
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
measures and protects against error - Correct Answers Policy
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
A simple course of action intended to achieve a result. Describes in detail a logical
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
sequence of a process to be followed to complete he task in a consistent manner -
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Correct Answers Procedure
II II II II II II
About how many critical care residency programs are added per year - Correct Answers
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
8
II
Acetylcysteine dose for APAP-induced ALF (IV) - Correct Answers 150 mg/kg (max
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
15g) over 60 min
II II II II
50 mg/kg (max 5g) over 4 hours, following by 100 mg/kg (max 10g) over 16 hours
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Acetylcysteine dose for non-APAP-induced ALF (IV) - Correct Answers 150 mg/kg over
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
60 min
II II
12.5 mg/kg/hr x 4 hrs II II II II
6.25 mg/kg/hr x 67 hrs II II II II
ADE vs. ADR - Correct Answers ADE is an injury resulting from the use of a drug,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
*including* ADRs (normal doses) and OVERdoses
II II II II II II
-preventable (med error, DDI, nonpreventable) II II II II
-FDA-reportable
ADR is any response to a drug which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
doses *normally used* for ppx, diagnosis, or therapy. By this definition, a drug that does
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
not produce the intended outcome would be considered an ADR (side effects and ADRs
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
used synonymously)
II II
Agents that decrease the shivering threshold - Correct Answers -Scheduled tylenol
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
-scheduled buspirone II
-magnesium
-meperidine (but inc risk seizures w/ decreased CrCl during hypothermia) II II II II II II II II II
-precedex/clonidine
-propofol
,AIS and alteplase
II II II
1. Onset of symptoms window
II II II II
2. INR goalII II
3. PLT goalII II
4. BP goal - Correct Answers 1. 4.5 hrs
II II II II II II II II II II II II
2. <= 1.7 II II
3. >= 100K II II
4. SBP <185, DBP <110
II II II II
Aminoglycoside ideal PD targets - Correct Answers Cmax to MIC ratio of 8-10 (resulted
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
in 90% clinical response in one study)
II II II II II II II
Amount of rescue breaths during health care provider cardiac arrest - Correct Answers
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
1 breath every 5 or 6 seconds
II II II II II II II
II AmpC beta lactamases confer resistance to ___ II II II II II II
How could you know if the organism is derepressed and thus has sustained high-level
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
production of ampC
II II II
DOC for severe infections - Correct Answers penicillin, ampicillin, 1st gen
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
cephalosporins
II
R to third-gen cephalosporins and broad-spectrum penicillins (piperacillin)
II II II II II II II
Carbapenem or cefepime II II
An assessment of a practice model that may be within your health system or pharmacy
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
that is compared with a best practice model - Correct Answers Gap analysis
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Appropriate insulin dose once DKA/HHS has resolved - Correct Answers 0.5-0.8
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
units/kg SQ insulin
II II II
At which point do you give antibiotics in pancreatic necrosis and which antibiotics do you
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
use and duration - Correct Answers If a patient hasn't improved in 7-10 days
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Only carbapenems, fluoroquinolones, metronidazole, or high-dose cephalosporins due to
II II II II II II II II
penetration issues
II II
Up to 14 daysif infection confirmed
II II II II II
Atracurium
II
1. Metabolism
II
2. DurationII
, 3. Unique adverse effects - Correct Answers 1. Hofmann elimination to form the toxic
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
metabolite laudanosine which is then hepatically and renally cleared (may precipate
II II II II II II II II II II II
seizure activity)
II II
2. 30-40 min
II II
3. Histamine release may cause cardiovascular adverse effects and bronchospasm
II II II II II II II II II
Benefits of isavuconazole over vori and posa - Correct Answers Linear kinetics, 98%
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
oral bioavailability, fewer drug-drug interactions, no QTc prolongation
II II II II II II II II
Besides supportive care of serotonin syndrome (i.e. BZDs for agitation, seizures, rigidity
II II II II II II II II II II II II
and direct-acting sympathomimetics for hypotension) what medications can actually
II II II II II II II II II
block serotonin receptors implicated with serotonin syndrome? - Correct Answers
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Cyproheptadine 12-32 mg/24 hours (2mg Q2H)
II II II II II II
Chlorpromazine 50-100mg intramuscularly II II
II BP goals after SCI
II II II
Options for treating hypotenstion
II II II
Options for treating bradycardia - Correct Answers MAP 85-90 x 7 days
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
flurocortisone or midodrine II II
pseudoephedrine or low-dose theophylline II II II
Bugs typically indicated in primary peritonitis (bacterial translocation of proximal small
II II II II II II II II II II II
bowel overgrowth) - Correct Answers Usually monomicrobial - S. pneumo, E. coli,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Klebsiella
II
Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
II II II II II II II II II II II II
tract), distal small bowel and large bowel - Correct Answers Same flora as proximal
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
small bowel, in addition to anaerobes
II II II II II II
Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
II II II II II II II II II II II II
tract), gastric and duodenal areas - Correct Answers Gram positive bacteria and
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
candida
II
Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
II II II II II II II II II II II II
tract), proximal small bowel - Correct Answers Aerobic GNB (E. coli, Klebsiella,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Proteus, Enterobacter), and aerobic GP (S. aureus, streptococci, enterococci)
II II II II II II II II II
Carbapenemases are seen in ___ and confer resistance to ___. What are treatment
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
options - Correct Answers acinetobacter, pseudomonas, enterobacteriaceae
II II II II II II II II II II II
With complete solution Newest 2024/25
Rated A+
2 classes of NMBA, MOA, and examples - Correct Answers 1. Depolarizing: binds and
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
activates acetylcholine receptors causing persistent depolarization (succinylcholine)
II II II II II II II
2. Nondepolarizing: blocks the action of acetylcholine and the neuromuscular junction (all
II II II II II II II II II II II
others - vec, roc, atra, cisatra)
II II II II II II
2 medications in the Orange Book with a B rating - Correct Answers pharmaceutical
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
equivalents only and cannot be interchanged
II II II II II II
2 medications in the Orange Book with an A rating - Correct Answers Both
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
pharmaceutical equivalents and bioequivalents and can be interchanged
II II II II II II II II
4T score: other causes of platelet fall - Correct Answers 2 points: none evident
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
1 point: possible
II II
0 points: definite
II II
4T score: pretest probability scores - Correct Answers Low positive predictive value:
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
High: 6-8 points II II
Intermediate: 4-5 points II II
High negative predictive value:
II II II
Low: 0-3 points II II
4T score: thrombocytopenia - Correct Answers 2 points: >50% platelet fall to nadir >20
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
1 point: 30-50% platelet fall, or nadir 10-19
II II II II II II II
0 points: <30% platelet fall, or nadir <10
II II II II II II II
4T score: thrombosis - Correct Answers 2 points: proven new thrombosis, skin
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
necrosis, or acute systemic reaction after IV UFH bolus
II II II II II II II II II
1 point: progressive or recurrent thrombosis or suspected thrombosis
II II II II II II II II
0 points: no thrombosis
II II II
4T score: Timing - Correct Answers 2 points: Days 5-10, or <1 day with recent heparin
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
exposure (past 30 days)
II II II II
1 point: >10 days of timing unclear, or <1 day with recent heparin exposure (past 31-100
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
days)
II
0 points: <day 4 with no recent heparin exposure
II II II II II II II II
II 5 trace elements in PN
II II II II
,Which would you withhold for patients with hepatobiliary/cholestatic liver disease?
II II II II II II II II II
Which would you without in renal impairment (without RRT)? - Correct Answers Zinc,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
copper, chromium, manganese, selenium
II II II II
Copper and manganese II II
Selenium
A course or plan of action which establishes standards of practice or quality/compliance
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
measures and protects against error - Correct Answers Policy
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
A simple course of action intended to achieve a result. Describes in detail a logical
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
sequence of a process to be followed to complete he task in a consistent manner -
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Correct Answers Procedure
II II II II II II
About how many critical care residency programs are added per year - Correct Answers
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
8
II
Acetylcysteine dose for APAP-induced ALF (IV) - Correct Answers 150 mg/kg (max
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
15g) over 60 min
II II II II
50 mg/kg (max 5g) over 4 hours, following by 100 mg/kg (max 10g) over 16 hours
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Acetylcysteine dose for non-APAP-induced ALF (IV) - Correct Answers 150 mg/kg over
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
60 min
II II
12.5 mg/kg/hr x 4 hrs II II II II
6.25 mg/kg/hr x 67 hrs II II II II
ADE vs. ADR - Correct Answers ADE is an injury resulting from the use of a drug,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
*including* ADRs (normal doses) and OVERdoses
II II II II II II
-preventable (med error, DDI, nonpreventable) II II II II
-FDA-reportable
ADR is any response to a drug which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
doses *normally used* for ppx, diagnosis, or therapy. By this definition, a drug that does
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
not produce the intended outcome would be considered an ADR (side effects and ADRs
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
used synonymously)
II II
Agents that decrease the shivering threshold - Correct Answers -Scheduled tylenol
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
-scheduled buspirone II
-magnesium
-meperidine (but inc risk seizures w/ decreased CrCl during hypothermia) II II II II II II II II II
-precedex/clonidine
-propofol
,AIS and alteplase
II II II
1. Onset of symptoms window
II II II II
2. INR goalII II
3. PLT goalII II
4. BP goal - Correct Answers 1. 4.5 hrs
II II II II II II II II II II II II
2. <= 1.7 II II
3. >= 100K II II
4. SBP <185, DBP <110
II II II II
Aminoglycoside ideal PD targets - Correct Answers Cmax to MIC ratio of 8-10 (resulted
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
in 90% clinical response in one study)
II II II II II II II
Amount of rescue breaths during health care provider cardiac arrest - Correct Answers
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
1 breath every 5 or 6 seconds
II II II II II II II
II AmpC beta lactamases confer resistance to ___ II II II II II II
How could you know if the organism is derepressed and thus has sustained high-level
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
production of ampC
II II II
DOC for severe infections - Correct Answers penicillin, ampicillin, 1st gen
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
cephalosporins
II
R to third-gen cephalosporins and broad-spectrum penicillins (piperacillin)
II II II II II II II
Carbapenem or cefepime II II
An assessment of a practice model that may be within your health system or pharmacy
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
that is compared with a best practice model - Correct Answers Gap analysis
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Appropriate insulin dose once DKA/HHS has resolved - Correct Answers 0.5-0.8
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
units/kg SQ insulin
II II II
At which point do you give antibiotics in pancreatic necrosis and which antibiotics do you
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
use and duration - Correct Answers If a patient hasn't improved in 7-10 days
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Only carbapenems, fluoroquinolones, metronidazole, or high-dose cephalosporins due to
II II II II II II II II
penetration issues
II II
Up to 14 daysif infection confirmed
II II II II II
Atracurium
II
1. Metabolism
II
2. DurationII
, 3. Unique adverse effects - Correct Answers 1. Hofmann elimination to form the toxic
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
metabolite laudanosine which is then hepatically and renally cleared (may precipate
II II II II II II II II II II II
seizure activity)
II II
2. 30-40 min
II II
3. Histamine release may cause cardiovascular adverse effects and bronchospasm
II II II II II II II II II
Benefits of isavuconazole over vori and posa - Correct Answers Linear kinetics, 98%
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
oral bioavailability, fewer drug-drug interactions, no QTc prolongation
II II II II II II II II
Besides supportive care of serotonin syndrome (i.e. BZDs for agitation, seizures, rigidity
II II II II II II II II II II II II
and direct-acting sympathomimetics for hypotension) what medications can actually
II II II II II II II II II
block serotonin receptors implicated with serotonin syndrome? - Correct Answers
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Cyproheptadine 12-32 mg/24 hours (2mg Q2H)
II II II II II II
Chlorpromazine 50-100mg intramuscularly II II
II BP goals after SCI
II II II
Options for treating hypotenstion
II II II
Options for treating bradycardia - Correct Answers MAP 85-90 x 7 days
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
flurocortisone or midodrine II II
pseudoephedrine or low-dose theophylline II II II
Bugs typically indicated in primary peritonitis (bacterial translocation of proximal small
II II II II II II II II II II II
bowel overgrowth) - Correct Answers Usually monomicrobial - S. pneumo, E. coli,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Klebsiella
II
Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
II II II II II II II II II II II II
tract), distal small bowel and large bowel - Correct Answers Same flora as proximal
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
small bowel, in addition to anaerobes
II II II II II II
Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
II II II II II II II II II II II II
tract), gastric and duodenal areas - Correct Answers Gram positive bacteria and
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
candida
II
Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
II II II II II II II II II II II II
tract), proximal small bowel - Correct Answers Aerobic GNB (E. coli, Klebsiella,
II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II II
Proteus, Enterobacter), and aerobic GP (S. aureus, streptococci, enterococci)
II II II II II II II II II
Carbapenemases are seen in ___ and confer resistance to ___. What are treatment
II II II II II II II II II II II II II
options - Correct Answers acinetobacter, pseudomonas, enterobacteriaceae
II II II II II II II II II II II
