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NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm – Chamberlain UPDATED Questions and CORRECT Answers

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NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm – Chamberlain UPDATED Questions and CORRECT Answers During what trimester is a pregnant woman most at risk for adverse drug reactions with potential long term consequences? - CORRECT ANSWER- 1st trimester (fetus most at risk d/t rapid growth) What is BEERS criteria? - CORRECT ANSWER- Recommendations of medications inappropriate for elderly (65 and older), prescriber ultimately decides

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NR 565 - advanced pharmacology
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NR 565 - advanced pharmacology

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Uploaded on
October 23, 2024
Number of pages
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Written in
2024/2025
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NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm
– Chamberlain UPDATED Questions and
CORRECT Answers
During what trimester is a pregnant woman most at risk for adverse drug reactions with
potential long term consequences? - CORRECT ANSWER- 1st trimester (fetus most at risk
d/t rapid growth)


What is BEERS criteria? - CORRECT ANSWER- Recommendations of medications
inappropriate for elderly (65 and older), prescriber ultimately decides


What is the CYP450 (cytochrome P450) - CORRECT ANSWER- liver enzyme system where
medications are metabolized, can either be inducers or inhibitors and create drug-drug
interactions


CYP450 inducers - CORRECT ANSWER- Speed up metabolism of drugs (drug is cleared
faster), drug has lesser effect (decrease blood levels of drug), elevate CYP450 enzymes


CYP450 inducers pneumonic - CORRECT ANSWER- "Bullshit Crap GPS INDUCES rage"


CYP450 inducer drug names - CORRECT ANSWER- Barbituates, St John wort,
Carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol, phenytoin, griseofulvin, phenobarbital, sulfonylureas


CYP450 inhibitors - CORRECT ANSWER- inhibit metabolism, increase blood levels of
medications


CYP450 pneumonic - CORRECT ANSWER- "VISA credit card debt INHIBITS spending on
designers like CK to look GQ"


CYP450 inhibitors drug names - CORRECT ANSWER- Valproate, isoniazid, sulfonamides,
amiodarone, chloramphenicol, ketoconazole, grapefruit juice, quinidine

,Physiological changes during pregnancy that impact pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetic
properties of drugs? - CORRECT ANSWER- increase glomerular filtration rate leads to
increase durg excretion
increase hepatic metabolism
decrease tone and motility of bowel
increase drug absorption


Examples of medications that can be teratogenic - CORRECT ANSWER- Antiepileptic
drugs, antimicrobials such as tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones, vitamin A in large doses,
some anticoagulants, and hormonal medications such as diethylstilbestrol (DES).


How is absorption of intramuscular medications different in neonates? - CORRECT
ANSWER- slow and erratic due to low blood flow in muscles first few days of life


Why is absorption of medication in the stomach increased in infancy? - CORRECT
ANSWER- delayed gastric emptying


Some medications that should be avoided in the pediatric patient? - CORRECT ANSWER-
glucocorticoids, discoloration of developing teeth with tetracyclines, and kernicterus with
sulfonamides, levofloxacin (antibiotics)
aspirin (Severe intoxication from acute overdose)


what should be included in medication administration patient education? - CORRECT
ANSWER- dosage size and timing
route and technique of administration
duration of treatment
drug storage
nature and time course of desired responses
nature and time course of adverse responses
finish taking antibiotic


What are some things that put the elderly patient at higher risk for adverse drug reactions? -
CORRECT ANSWER- reduced renal function
polypharmacy (the use of five or more medications daily)

,greater severity of illness
presence of comorbidities
use of drugs that have a low therapeutic index (e.g., digoxin)
increased individual variation secondary to altered pharmacokinetics
inadequate supervision of long-term therapy
poor patient adherence


How can healthcare providers decrease likelihood of an elderly patient experiencing an
adverse drug reaction? - CORRECT ANSWER- obtaining a thorough drug history that
includes over-the-counter medications
considering pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics changes due to age
monitoring the patient's clinical response and plasma drug levels
using the simplest regimen possible
monitoring for drug-drug interactions and iatrogenic illness
periodically reviewing the need for continued drug therapy
encouraging the patient to dispose of old medications
taking steps to promote adherence and to avoid drugs on the Beers list


How can we promote medication adherence with elderly patients? - CORRECT ANSWER-
simplifying drug regimens
providing clear and concise verbal and written instructions
using an appropriate dosage form
clearly labeling and dispensing easy-to-open containers
developing daily reminders
monitoring frequently
affordability of drugs
support systems


Why do nitrates need to be taken no later than 4 PM? - CORRECT ANSWER- Need nitrate
free interval so tolerance doesn't develop


Nine factors that impact outcome of medication? - CORRECT ANSWER- Gender and race

, Genetics and pharmacogenomics
Variability in absorption
placebo effect
Tolerance
patho
age
bodyweight


Do you need informed consent for genetic testing? - CORRECT ANSWER- yes


What is the purpose of the Genetic Information Non-Discriminatory Act? - CORRECT
ANSWER- Protects patients from discrimination by employers and insurance providers based
on genetic information


Difference between practice authority and prescriptive authority? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Practice authority refers to the nurse practitioner's ability to practice without physician
oversight, whereas prescriptive authority refers to the nurse practitioner's authority to
prescribe medications independently and without limitations.


Who regulates prescriptive authority? - CORRECT ANSWER- the jurisdiction of a health
professional board. This may be the State Board of Nursing, the State Board of Medicine, or
the State Board of Pharmacy, as determined by each state.


What is scope of practice determined by? - CORRECT ANSWER- is determined by state
practice and licensure laws.


What is full practice authority? - CORRECT ANSWER- Nurse practitioners have the
autonomy to evaluate patients, diagnose, order and interpret tests, initiate and manage
treatments and prescribe medications, including controlled substances without physician
oversight.


What is reduced practice authority? - CORRECT ANSWER- Nurse practitioners are limited
in at least one element of practice. The state requires a formal collaborative agreement with
an outside health discipline for the nurse practitioner to provide patient care. ex/ physician
involvement for 5 yrs than independent

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