final Exam 4 Pharm Practice Questions and answers.docx

  991. An adolescent patient who is on the school swim team asks a nurse about ways to prevent swimmer's ear. The nurse will tell the patient to: a. allow the ears to drain well after every swim and shower. b. clean the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator after swimming. c. keep the ear canals free of cerumen. d. use antifungal ear drops before and after swimming. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Acute otitis externa (OE) can be minimized by keeping the natural defenses of the external auditory canal (EAC) healthy. Swimmers should be taught to dry the EAC after showering and swimming. Cleaning the ears with cotton-tipped swabs can remove the cerumen and abrade the epithelium. Removing cerumen removes the natural barrier to infection. Antifungal ear drops are used to treat acute OE but not as a preventive measure. 992. An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic with a temperature of 40° C. The child's parents tell the nurse that the child developed the fever the previous evening and was inconsolable during the night. The provider examines the child and notes a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane. The nurse will expect to: a. ask the parent to return to the clinic in 2 days to see whether antibiotics need to be started. b. discuss a referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for follow-up treatment. c. teach the parent to give analgesics for 3 days while observing for worsening symptoms. d. tell the parent to administer amoxicillin at 45 mg/kg/dose twice daily. - Correct Answers: ANS: D Patients with severe symptoms of AOM should begin treatment with antibiotics upon diagnosis. For children 6 months to 2 years of age, treatment should begin when the diagnosis is certain, as evidenced by erythema of the tympanic membrane (TM) and distinct discomfort. Amoxicillin 45 mg/kg/dose twice daily is indicated. Observation for 2 days is not recommended for this child, because the diagnosis is certain; therefore, asking the parent to return in 2 days or to give only symptomatic treatment is incorrect. Referral to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist is not recommended unless the child has recurrent AOM or if treatments repeatedly fail. 993. A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect: a. acidifying drops for 1 week. b. antibiotic ear drops. c. intravenous (IV) antifungal agents. d. oral antibiotics. - Correct Answers: ANS: A As a rule, otomycosis can be managed with thorough cleansing and application of acidifying drops (2% acetic acid solution applied three or four times a day for 7 days). If that does not work, an antifungal drug solution can be tried. If the infection fails to respond to the drug, oral antifungal therapy may be needed. Neither antibiotic ear drops nor oral antibiotics are indicated as the first course of treatment. IV antifungal agents are not indicated at all. 994. A provider has told a parent that a 3-year-old child has a minor ear infection and that an antibiotic would be prescribed in a couple of days if the child's symptoms worsened. The parent asks the nurse why the child cannot get an antibiotic today. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "If the eardrum ruptures, we can culture the fluid to determine which antibiotic is best." b. "Most ear infections are caused by viruses, so antibiotics are not effective." c. "Most ear infections will resolve on their own without antibiotics." d. "Your child will develop tolerance to antibiotics if they are prescribed too often." - Correct Answers: ANS: C The vast majority of acute otitis media (AOM) episodes resolve without treatment, so unless the child is very ill, observation is the initial choice. Spontaneous rupture of the tympanic membrane can occur, but clinicians do not wait for it to happen to obtain a culture that will guide treatment. About 70% to 90% of AOM episodes are bacterial in origin. Patients do not develop tolerance to antibiotic effects; overuse of antibiotics can lead to resistant organisms. 995. A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider? a. Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen b. Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals c. Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin] d. Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear - Correct Answers: ANS: B For children over age 5 years, the AAP guidelines recommend topical anesthetic ear drops for pain relief; this is contraindicated if the TM is perforated. This child does not have drainage, indicating intact eardrums. Adding another oral analgesic will not be as effective as a topical anesthetic. The child is afebrile, so there is no concern about a resistant infection. Tympanostomy is not indicated. 996. A nurse is discussing health maintenance with the parent of a newborn infant. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of ways to reduce the incidence of otitis media? a. "I should hold my baby in an upright position during feeding." b. "I should keep my baby out of day care during cold and flu season." c. "My baby should not use a pacifier after 6 months of age." d. "The pneumococcal vaccine will prevent my baby from getting ear infections." - Correct Answers: ANS: B Avoiding child care centers when respiratory infections are prevalent can significantly reduce the incidence of AOM. Holding infants in an upright position is an unproved recommendation. Avoiding pacifier use in the second 6 months of life is an unproved recommendation. The pneumococcal vaccine can slightly reduce the risk of AOM. 997. A 2-year-old child is seen in the clinic in July with otalgia, erythematous, bulging tympanic membranes (TMs), and rupture of the right TM. The child also has a temperature of 39.4° C. The child's parent tells the nurse, "This is the fifth ear infection this year. What can we do?" The nurse will expect the provider to: a. administer ceftriaxone [Rocephin] IM and give the influenza vaccine. b. begin prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Septra]. c. prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin] and refer the child to an otolaryngologist. d. prescribe high-dose amoxicillin [Amoxil] and administer the influenza vaccine. - Correct Answers: ANS: C Recurrent AOM is defined as AOM that occurs three or more times within 6 months or four or more times in a year. Giving an antibiotic, such as Augmentin, is appropriate for each episode, and referral to an ENT specialist is recommended to help reduce risk. IM Rocephin might be an appropriate treatment for an episode, but a flu vaccine is not recommended in July. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is not recommended. High-dose amoxicillin might be an appropriate treatment for an episode, but a flu vaccine is not recommended in July. 998. The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal? a. Administering refrigerated drops b. Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops c. Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops d. Inserting earplugs after administering the drops - Correct Answers: ANS: B Insertion of a sponge wick can aid delivery of the ear drops to the epithelium of the ear canal. Medication is absorbed into the wick, which delivers the drug to the epithelium. Ear drops should be warmed before administration to prevent dizziness, which may occur with instillation of cold drops. Cerumen should not be removed. Inserting cotton-tipped swabs may damage the epithelium. The use of earplugs may lead to further problems with bacterial otitis externa. 999. A nurse is teaching a parent about the observation strategy for managing a 3-year-old child's ear infection. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should not give analgesics, because they may mask important symptoms." b. "I will give ibuprofen or acetaminophen for pain or fever as needed." c. "I will let my provider know if the symptoms are not better in 1 week." d. "There is a slight risk of mastoiditis if antibiotic therapy is delayed." - Correct Answers: ANS: B Observation is defined as management by symptomatic relief alone for 48 to 72 hours to allow time for AOM to resolve on its own. Parents should be taught to administer analgesics/antipyretics. Providing pain relief does not mask an important symptom. Parents should notify the provider if symptoms worsen or do not improve in 48 to 72 hours. There is no significant difference in the risk of developing mastoiditis. 1000. A child has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), and the child's parent asks the nurse what this means. The nurse will explain that OME is: a. a condition with a heightened risk of acute otitis media. b. an acute ear infection with fluid in the middle ear. c. an infection of the skin and tissues of the outer ear. d. fluid in the middle ear without localized or systemic infection. - Correct Answers: ANS: D OME occurs in many children after an episode of AOM. It is characterized by fluid in the middle ear without evidence of local or systemic illness. It does not necessarily pose a heightened risk of AOM. OME is not an acute ear infection or an infection of the outer ear. 1001. A 12-month-old child attends day care and is seen in a clinic for a second middle ear infection since age 8 months. The parent calls the nurse to report that after the third day of giving amoxicillin [Amoxil], the child continues to have a temperature of 39.5° C and is unable to sleep well because of pain. What will the nurse do? a. Encourage the parent to discuss amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin] with the child's provider. b. Recommend that the parent consider removing the child from day care to reduce exposure to infection. c. Schedule a clinic appointment for the child to receive ceftriaxone [Rocephin] IM. d. Tell the parent the child will probably need surgery for tympanostomy tubes to reduce infections. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Resistant AOM is on the rise because of the emergence of resistant pathogens such as Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis, which are resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics, and Streptococcus pneumoniae, which synthesizes altered penicillin-binding proteins. Resistance is treated with high-dose amoxicillin/clavulanate. The high dose of amoxicillin increases activity against amoxicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae, and the clavulanate component overcomes beta- lactam resistance of H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis. Removing a child from day care can help reduce the number of ear infections in infants and young children. This child has only experienced two episodes, and removing the child from day care may not be easy for this family, so this recommendation is not appropriate at this time. IM Rocephin is not recommended. Surgery for bilateral myringotomy tympanotomy tubes (BMTTs) is used to reduce the number of episodes in children with recurrent AOM. 970. A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside." b. "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside." c. "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming." d. "UV radiation does not penetrate through water." - Correct Answers: ANS: C Sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming and with profuse sweating. Most sunscreens should be applied at least 30 minutes before going outdoors, but some require application 2 hours before exposure. Clouds do not protect from all UV rays. UV radiation can penetrate at least several centimeters of clear water. 971. A 14-year-old patient has moderate acne that has not responded to topical drugs. The nurse will suggest that the patient and her parents discuss which treatment with the provider? a. Combination oral contraceptive medication b. Doxycycline [Vibramycin] c. Isotretinoin [Accutane] d. Spironolactone - Correct Answers: ANS: B For moderate to severe acne, oral antibiotics are indicated. Doxycycline is a drug of first choice. Hormonal agents, such as oral contraceptive pills (OCPs), are used in female patients who are at least 15 years old. Isotretinoin is used when other treatments fail and acne is severe. Spironolactone is used when OCPs fail. 972. A patient with psoriasis has been using a high-potency glucocorticoid. Because of skin atrophy, the provider has ordered a switch to calcitriol [Vectical], a vitamin D3 analog. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. "Calcitriol causes severe photosensitivity." b. "Itching, erythema, and irritation are indications of an allergic reaction." c. "Systemic effects do not occur with this topical agent." d. "You may apply calcitriol to all areas of the skin except the face." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Calcitriol may be applied twice daily to all areas except the face. It does not cause severe photosensitivity. Skin irritation does not occur. Systemic effects may occur. 973. To provide protection against the full range of ultraviolet (UV) radiation, an organic sunscreen must contain which agent? a. Avobenzone b. Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) c. Titanium dioxide d. Zinc oxide - Correct Answers: ANS: A Only one organic sunscreen, avobenzone, absorbs the full range of UV radiation. The other agents do not protect against the full range of UV radiation. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are inorganic screens. 974. A female patient with baldness asks a nurse about the safety and efficacy of minoxidil [Rogaine]. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Hair regrowth is most effective when baldness has developed recently. b. Minoxidil cannot be used by female patients. c. Once hair has been restored, minoxidil may be discontinued, because hair loss will stop. d. Systemic side effects, such as headaches and flushing, are common. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Minoxidil is most effective at treating recent hair loss. It may be used in female patients. Hair loss may continue even with uninterrupted treatment. Systemic side effects are not common. 975. A child with eczema has been treated unsuccessfully with a topical glucocorticoid for a year and has skin atrophy and hypopigmentation. The nurse will suggest discussing which drugs with the provider? a. Higher potency topical glucocorticoids b. Topical keratolytic agents c. Topical immunosuppressants d. Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) - Correct Answers: ANS: C If topical glucocorticoids fail to treat eczema without causing skin atrophy and hypopigmentation, topical immunosuppressants may be used. Higher potency glucocorticoids will only compound the adverse effects. Topical keratolytic agents are not indicated. Topical NSAIDs are not indicated. 976. A patient has actinic keratosis and is unable to tolerate the effects of fluorouracil. The provider orders the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug diclofenac sodium [Solaraze] 3% gel. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication? a. "Apply this medication three times daily for 30 days." b. "Dry skin, itching, and rash are common local side effects." c. "This drug has the same risk of GI side effects as with oral NSAIDs." d. "You do not need to protect your skin from sunlight with diclofenac." - Correct Answers: ANS: B Localized skin reactions are common effects with diclofenac. The medication is applied twice daily for 60 to 90 days. The risk of GI side effects is very low. Diclofenac causes sensitization to UV radiation, so patients should be taught to avoid exposure and to use sunscreen. 977. A patient with actinic keratoses has received a prescription for fluorouracil [Carac]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication? a. "Healing should occur 6 weeks after beginning treatment." b. "I will apply this drug twice daily." c. "Severe inflammation is an indication for stopping treatment." d. "Tissue ulceration and necrosis are desired effects." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Fluorouracil causes tissue disintegration, erosion, ulceration, and necrosis as part of the normal course of desired effects. Complete healing may take several months, although treatment lasts 2 to 6 weeks. Carac is applied once daily. Severe inflammation is part of the course of treatment and not an indication for discontinuing the medication. 978. A nurse is discussing the use of tazarotene [Tazorac] with a patient who has psoriasis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should use a sunscreen when using this medication." b. "I understand the gel can cause staining of clothing." c. "I will apply this once daily in the evening." d. "I will apply the medication to dry skin." - Correct Answers: ANS: B Tazarotene will not stain clothing. It is true that patients should use sunscreen while using this drug. It should be applied once daily in the evening to dry skin. 979. An adolescent has begun using benzoyl peroxide lotion twice daily to treat acne. The patient reports experiencing drying and burning of the skin. What will the nurse suggest? a. Applying lotion to the skin after applying the drug b. Reducing the frequency to one application a day c. Discontinuing the medication, because this is likely an allergic reaction d. Requesting a prescription for a gel formulation of the drug - Correct Answers: ANS: B Benzoyl peroxide may cause drying and peeling of the skin. If signs of severe local irritation occur, such as burning or blistering, the frequency of application should be reduced. Applying lotion is not indicated. These symptoms are not consistent with an allergic reaction. There is no difference in skin reactions between the gel and the lotion formulations. 980. A teenaged female patient has begun to develop acne and asks a nurse how to minimize pimple formation. What will the nurse recommend? a. Asking the provider about oral contraceptives b. Cleansing the face gently two to three times daily c. Eliminating greasy foods from the diet d. Using an abrasive agent to scrub the face - Correct Answers: ANS: B Gentle cleansing two to three times a day can reduce surface oiliness and help minimize acne lesions. Oral contraceptives are not first-line treatment for acne. Eliminating greasy foods from the diet does not affect pimple formation. An abrasive agent is not indicated for mild acne. 981. A 50-year-old patient receives botulinum toxin type A [Botox] injections for the first time on her forehead and around her eyes. One week later, she calls the clinic to report that she is experiencing droopy eyelids. The nurse will tell the patient that this effect: a. is normal and will resolve in a few days. b. may persist for 3 to 6 months but will resolve. c. may progress to cause drooling and dysphagia. d. represents an adverse effect that may be permanent. - Correct Answers: ANS: B Botox is a neurotoxin that acts on cholinergic neurons to block the release of acetylcholine. Injection into the wrong site or diffusion from the correct site into surrounding tissues can weaken muscles not intended as targets. This patient's droopy eyelids are an example of the wrong site being affected. Weakening of muscles can last 3 to 6 months but will resolve. It is incorrect to tell the patient that it is a normal effect or that it will resolve in a matter of days. Drooling and dysphagia are likely when injections are around the mouth. It is not a permanent effect. 982. A patient is using a high-concentration keratolytic agent containing 20% salicylic acid to remove warts. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. Peeling and drying are desired effects of this drug. b. Systemic effects may occur with this medication. c. Tinnitus is a common side effect of little concern. d. Tissue injury is unlikely at this dose. - Correct Answers: ANS: B Salicylic acid is readily absorbed through the skin, and systemic toxicity can result. Peeling and drying are not desired effects of salicylic acid. Tinnitus is a symptom of systemic toxicity. Tissue injury is likely in any concentration above 6%. 983. A patient asks a nurse what a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 indicates. The nurse will tell the patient that an SPF of 15 indicates: a. a 93% block of UVB radiation. b. half the protection of a sunscreen with an SPF of 30. c. low protection. d. that it takes 15 minutes for the sun to burn. - Correct Answers: ANS: A A sun protection factor of 15 indicates a 93% block of UVB. As the SPF increases, the increment in protection gets progressively smaller, so an SPF of 15 is not half that of an SPF of 30. Low protection is indicated by an SPF of 2 to 14. The SPF is calculated by the time required for the development of erythema in the protected region divided by the time required for the development of erythema in the unprotected region. 984. An infant has a severe contact diaper dermatitis. The provider orders triamcinolone acetonide [Kenalog] 0.1% cream to be applied three times daily. When teaching the infant's parents about this medication, the nurse will instruct them to apply: a. a thick layer and massage the cream into the skin. b. a thin layer and leave the diaper open as much as possible. c. the cream and place an occlusive dressing over the area. d. the cream and put the infant's diaper on tightly. - Correct Answers: ANS: B Topical glucocorticoids can be absorbed systemically and cause adverse effects. To minimize systemic and local adverse effects, the medication should be applied sparingly. Parents should be taught to avoid tight-fitting diapers. The cream should be rubbed gently into the skin. Occlusive dressings increase the risk of adverse effects. Putting the diaper on tightly creates an occlusive dressing. 985. An adolescent patient with moderate acne has begun a regimen consisting of combination clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen? a. "I should apply the Retin-A immediately after bathing." b. "I should apply the Retin-A twice daily." c. "I should augment this therapy with an abrasive soap." d. "I should use sunscreen every day." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Tretinoin increases susceptibility to sunburn, so patients should be warned to apply a sunscreen and wear protective clothing. Before applying Retin-A, the skin should be washed, toweled dry, and allowed to dry fully for 15 to 30 minutes. Retin-A is applied once daily. Abrasive soaps intensify localized reactions to Retin-A and should not be used. 986. A 50-year-old patient asks about using tretinoin [Renova] to minimize wrinkles. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. The drug may be discontinued once results are obtained. b. Results may be visible within a few weeks of starting therapy. c. Systemic toxicity is a common side effect in patients with sensitive skin. d. The drug is not effective on coarse wrinkles or sun-damaged skin. - Correct Answers: ANS: D Tretinoin is used to treat fine wrinkles, not coarse wrinkles, and does not repair sun-damaged skin. Treatment with Renova must continue to maintain the response to the drug. Results are not visible for up to 6 months after beginning therapy. Systemic toxicity is not common. 987. A patient has severe acne that has been refractory to treatment. The patient is taking tetracycline and using topical tretinoin [Retin-A] and has been applying benzoyl peroxide twice daily. The provider asks the nurse to teach this patient about isotretinoin [Accutane], which the patient will begin taking in a few weeks. The nurse will include which statement when teaching this patient about this drug? a. "Alcohol may be consumed in moderation when taking this drug." b. "Skin rash, headache, and hair loss are common with this drug." c. "Tetracycline must be discontinued before beginning the isotretinoin." d. "Two pregnancy tests are required before each monthly refill of your prescription." - Correct Answers: ANS: C Adverse effects of isotretinoin can be increased by tetracycline, so tetracycline must be discontinued before therapy is started. Alcohol should be avoided, since it can potentiate hypertriglyceridemia. Skin rash, headache, and hair loss are not common side effects, although they can occur. Two pregnancy tests are required at the beginning of therapy; at each refill, only one pregnancy test is required. 988. An adolescent has recently been experiencing pimples. The nurse notes several closed comedones across the patient's forehead and on the nose. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about the use of which medication? a. Benzoyl peroxide b. Topical clindamycin c. Topical erythromycin d. Topical retinoids - Correct Answers: ANS: A Benzoyl peroxide is a first-line drug for mild to moderate acne. Other topical antibiotics and retinoids are used when first-line therapy fails. 989. A patient with severe psoriasis will begin taking acitretin [Soriatane]. The nurse obtains a health history and learns that the patient takes a combination oral contraceptive. What will the nurse do? a. Counsel the patient to use another form of birth control along with the OCP. b. Tell the patient she may stop using contraception when the medication is withdrawn. c. Tell the patient that acitretin is safe to take during pregnancy. d. Tell the patient to report spotting to the provider so that another form of contraceptive may be ordered. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Acitretin is contraindicated during pregnancy and can reduce the effectiveness of progestin-only oral contraceptives. Patients should be counseled to use two reliable forms of birth control when taking this drug. Patients must continue using birth control for at least 3 months after treatment has stopped. Acitretin is teratogenic. Patients may experience spotting with progestin-only contraceptives, which this woman is not taking. 990. A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order? a. Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A] b. Doxycycline [Vibramycin] and tretinoin [Retin-A] c. Erythromycin [Ery-Tab) and benzoyl peroxide d. Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin [Accutane] - Correct Answers: ANS: B Oral antibiotics are used for moderate to severe acne and are usually combined with a topical retinoid. Combination clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide and tretinoin are used for mild to moderate acne. Erythromycin can be used as an oral antibiotic but would need to be combined with a topical retinoid. Isotretinoin is used for severe acne that has not responded to other treatments. 958. A nurse administers timolol [Timoptic] ophthalmic drops to a patient who has glaucoma. The patient reports stinging of the eyes shortly after the drops were administered. What will the nurse do? a. Monitor the patient's heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. b. Notify the provider that the patient shows signs of angle-closure glaucoma. c. Reassure the patient that these are localized, reversible effects of the drug. d. Request an order for an antihistamine to treat this allergic response to the drug. - Correct Answers: ANS: C Local effects of timolol and other beta blockers are generally minimal, but transient ocular stinging can occur. There is no need to monitor vital signs, because this does not represent a systemic reaction. This is not a sign of angle-closure glaucoma. Antihistamines will not help. 959. A nursing student asks the nurse to discuss the differences between POAG and angle- closure glaucoma. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Angle-closure glaucoma may be asymptomatic until irreversible damage has occurred." b. "Both types are more common in African-American patients." c. "Drug therapy is the definitive treatment for angle-closure glaucoma." d. "Early treatment with prostaglandin analogs can stop the progression of POAG." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Prostaglandin analogs are first-line agents for treating POAG, and early treatment can stop the progression. Angle-closure glaucoma has a rapid onset of painful symptoms. POAG is more common in African Americans but angle-closure glaucoma is not. Surgery, not drugs, is the definitive treatment for angle-closure glaucoma. 960. A patient has had dilation of the eyes with an anticholinergic agent. What will the nurse say when preparing this patient to go home after the examination? a. "Systemic side effects will not occur with this agent." b. "You may experience an increased heart rate, but this is a harmless side effect." c. "You may need to wear dark glasses until this medication wears off." d. "You will be able to read as soon as the examination is completed." - Correct Answers: ANS: C Because the agent causes cycloplegia, which paralyzes the iris sphincter, the eyes are unable to respond to bright light, so patients should be advised to wear sunglasses until this effect wears off. Systemic side effects do occur with these agents. Tachycardia is a systemic effect and may indicate toxicity. Mydriasis is an effect of this drug, causing the eye to be unable to focus; patients will have blurred vision until this effect wears off. 961. A nurse is preparing to administer timolol [Timoptic] eye drops to a patient who has open- angle glaucoma. The nurse notes that the patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse will contact the provider to discuss changing to which medication? a. Betaxolol b. Carteolol c. Levobunolol d. Metipranolol - Correct Answers: ANS: A Betaxolol is the only ophthalmic beta blocker that is beta1 selective, meaning that it has less chance of causing bronchial constriction. It is preferred for patients with asthma and COPD. The other agents are not beta1 selective. 962. A patient with ocular hypertension will begin using brimonidine [Alphagan] for long-term reduction of increased ocular pressure (IOP). The nurse teaches the patient about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "After using the drops, I should wait 15 minutes before putting in contacts." b. "Because this is a topical medication, drowsiness will not occur." c. "I will not have cardiovascular side effects when using this medication." d. "If my eyes begin to itch or turn red, it means I am allergic to this drug." - Correct Answers: ANS: A Patients using this drug should wait 15 minutes before putting in contacts, because soft contacts can absorb the drug. Even though the medication is topical, it can be absorbed systemically, causing systemic side effects such as drowsiness or lowered blood pressure. Itching and hyperemia may occur and do not indicate allergy. 963. An older adult patient comes to an ophthalmology clinic complaining of increased difficulty reading in dim light. The provider examines the patient and notes three large yellow deposits under the patient's cornea. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment for this patient? a. High doses of vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc b. Laser therapy c. Pegaptanib [Macugen] d. Photodynamic therapy - Correct Answers: ANS: A This patient has three large drusen with minor vision changes, signs of intermediate age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). Patients with intermediate ARMD can significantly reduce their risk of developing advanced ARMD by taking high doses of vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc. Laser therapy, pegaptanib, and photodynamic therapy are used to manage wet, or neovascular, ARMD. 964. A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin using a fixed-dose preparation of dorzolamide and timolol [Cosopt] for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Blurred vision, tearing, or eye dryness may occur with this medication." b. "I may experience a bitter taste in my mouth after instilling these eye drops." c. "I will need to instill two eye drops three times daily in each eye." d. "If I notice redness in my eyes or eyelids, I should stop using these drops." - Correct Answers: ANS: C The fixed-dose preparation of dorzolamide and timolol is given as 1 drop twice daily. Blurred vision, tearing, eye dryness, and a bitter aftertaste are the expected side effects. Redness in the eyes or eyelids indicates an allergic conjunctivitis and means that the drops should be discontinued. 965. A patient has been using latanoprost [Xalatan] ophthalmic drops. The patient tells the nurse, "My eyes used to be greenish-brown, but now they're brown." What will the nurse do? a. Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect. b. Report this toxic effect to the patient's provider. c. Tell the patient that this indicates an increased risk of migraine headaches. d. Tell the patient that this effect will reverse when the medication is withdrawn. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Latanoprost can cause a harmless, heightened brown pigment of the iris that stops when the medication is discontinued but does not regress. It is not a sign of a toxic reaction. It does not indicate an increased risk of developing migraines. It will not reverse. 966. A patient begins using timolol [Timoptic] to treat primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). The nurse gives a dose and notes that the patient develops shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and auscultates wheezes in both lungs. The nurse will ask this patient about a history of which condition? a. Asthma b. Atrioventricular heart block c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Sinus bradycardia - Correct Answers: ANS: A Timolol is a beta blocker and can precipitate bronchoconstriction when absorbed systemically. Patients with asthma will develop shortness of breath and wheezing. These symptoms are not associated with AV block, pulmonary hypertension, or sinus bradycardia. 967. A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic instills an anticholinergic agent into a patient's eyes. The nurse provides teaching when the patient asks the reason for the drops. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "The drops help prevent my lenses from moving during the examination." b. "The drops will cause me to have blurred vision and sensitivity to light." c. "These drops allow the ophthalmologist to see inside my eyes." d. "This medication anesthetizes my eyes so that the examination won't be painful." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Anticholinergic agents are used to provide mydriasis and cycloplegia. They do not affect the sensation of pain and do not provide anesthesia. Cycloplegia refers to paralysis of the ciliary muscle and prevents the lens from moving during the examination. The desired effects, which facilitate eye examinations, do not allow the eye to focus or to respond to light, so blurred vision and photophobia occur. Mydriasis prevents the iris sphincter from contracting, allowing the examiner to see inside the eye. 968. A patient with severe allergic conjunctivitis who has been using cromolyn ophthalmic drops for 2 days calls the nurse to report persistence of the symptoms. When the nurse explains that it takes several weeks for maximum benefit to occur, the patient asks if there is something else to use in the meantime. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which drug with the provider? a. An ophthalmic demulcent b. H1-receptor antagonists c. Glucocorticoid drops d. Ocular decongestants - Correct Answers: ANS: B Histamine receptor antagonists can be used to provide immediate symptom relief, so until the cromolyn has provided relief, they may be useful for treating symptoms. Demulcents only add moisture to the eye and do not prevent chemical mediators from causing symptoms. Glucocorticoids are used for inflammatory disorders of the eye but are not first-line agents. Ocular decongestants are used to treat redness caused by minor irritants. 969. A nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with wet ARMD who will begin receiving bevacizumab [Avastin]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should be able to improve my visual acuity by using this drug." b. "I should report eye pain and photophobia to my provider if they occur." c. "This drug will help suppress the growth of new blood vessels." d. "This medication will not reduce the risk of blindness." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Bevacizumab can help reduce the risk of further impairment and progression to blindness. It can help improve visual acuity. Eye pain and photophobia are signs of endophthalmitis, which is an inflammation caused by infection; they should be reported to the provider. Bevacizumab works by suppressing the development of new blood vessels. 613. A nurse provides teaching for a woman who will begin taking supplemental calcium. Which statement by the woman indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Chewable calcium tablets are not absorbed well and are not recommended." b. "I should not take more than 600 mg of calcium at one time." c. "I should take enough supplemental calcium to provide my total daily requirements." d. "If I take calcium with green, leafy vegetables, it will increase absorption." - Correct Answers: ANS: B To help ensure adequate absorption of calcium, no more than 600 mg should be consumed at one time. Chewable calcium tablets are recommended because of their more consistent bioavailability. The amount of supplemental calcium should be enough to compensate for what is not consumed in the diet and should not constitute the total amount needed per day. Green, leafy vegetables reduce the absorption of calcium. 614. A nurse is preparing to administer IV calcium chloride to a patient with a low serum calcium level. Which drug on the patient's medication record, administered concurrently, would require additional patient monitoring by the nurse? a. Digoxin [Lanoxin] b. Furosemide [Lasix] c. Lorazepam [Ativan] d. Pantoprazole [Protonix] - Correct Answers: ANS: A Parenteral calcium may cause severe bradycardia in patients taking digoxin; therefore, the heart rate should be monitored closely. Concurrent administration of calcium chloride and pantoprazole, lorazepam, or furosemide is not known to lead to drug interactions. 615. A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with osteoporosis who has just switched from alendronate [Fosamax] to zoledronate [Reclast]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will need to have blood tests periodically while taking this drug." b. "I will only need a dose of this medication every 1 to 2 years." c. "This drug is less likely to cause osteonecrosis of the jaw." d. "This drug is only given intravenously." - Correct Answers: ANS: C Zoledronate has an increased risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw, as does alendronate. The patient is correct to identify the need for periodic blood tests. Zoledronate is given only every 1 to 2 years and is given only intravenously. 616. A patient with severe glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis will start therapy with teriparatide [Forteo]. What will the nurse expect to administer? a. 20 μg once daily subQ b. 20 μg twice daily subQ c. 10 μg once daily subQ d. 10 μg twice daily subQ - Correct Answers: ANS: A The dose of teriparatide for all indications is 20 mcg once daily subQ. 617. A nurse is discussing the role of vitamin D in calcium regulation with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet." b. "Vitamin D3 is preferred over vitamin D2." c. "Vitamin D can promote bone decalcification." d. "Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestine." - Correct Answers: ANS: A Vitamin D does not occur naturally in the diet. Adequate amounts are gained through fortified foods, supplements, and exposure to sunlight. Vitamin D3 is preferred. If calcium intake is not sufficient, vitamin D can promote bone decalcification. Vitamin D acts to increase the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestine. 618. A postmenopausal patient develops osteoporosis. The patient asks the nurse about medications to treat this condition. The nurse learns that the patient has a family history of breast cancer. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider? a. Estrogen estradiol b. Pamidronate [Aredia] c. Raloxifene [Evista] d. Teriparatide [Forteo] - Correct Answers: ANS: C Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has estrogenic effects in some tissues and antiestrogenic effects in others. It can preserve bone mineral density while protecting against breast and endometrial cancers. Estrogen promotes breast cancer and would not be indicated. Pamidronate and teriparatide are not protective against breast cancer. 619. A patient has severe Paget disease of the bone. The patient asks the nurse what can be done to alleviate the pain. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss the use of which medication with the provider? a. Alendronate [Fosamax] b. Calcifediol [25-Hydroxy-D3] c. Calcitonin-salmon [Miacalcin] d. Long-acting NSAIDs - Correct Answers: ANS: C Calcitonin-salmon is the drug of choice for rapid relief of pain associated with Paget disease. Alendronate, calcifediol, and NSAIDs are not indicated. 620. A patient with metastatic cancer has had several fractures secondary to bone metastases. The provider orders denosumab [Xgeva]. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. Denosumab may delay healing of these fractures. b. Denosumab should be given subcutaneously every 12 months. c. Denosumab will improve hypocalcemia. d. Unlike bisphosphonates, denosumab does not increase osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). - Correct Answers: ANS: A Because denosumab suppresses bone turnover, fracture healing may be delayed. Denosumab is given every 6 months. Denosumab can exacerbate hypocalcemia. Denosumab can increase the incidence of ONJ. 621. A patient taking risedronate IR [Actonel] for osteoporosis reports experiencing diarrhea and headaches. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. These are common side effects of this drug. b. These symptoms indicate serious toxicity. c. The patient should discuss taking risedronate DR [Atelvia] with the provider. d. The medication should be taken after a meal to reduce symptoms. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Diarrhea and headaches are common adverse effects of risedronate IR. These symptoms do not indicate toxicity. The side effects of Atelvia are similar to those of Actonel. Taking the medication after a meal will not reduce these effects. 622. A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding __ daily and __ IU of vitamin D3 each day. a. 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000 b. 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000 c. 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000 d. 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000 - Correct Answers: ANS: C Women older than 50 years need 1200 mg of calcium per day. This patient is getting 600 mg/day. She should add 600 mg/day to compensate for what she does not get in her diet, because the amount of a supplement should be enough to make up the difference. Her vitamin D level is low, so she needs a vitamin D supplement. To treat deficiency, adults older than 19 years should get 10,000 IU/day. An additional intake of 1200 mg of calcium once daily is too much calcium. An additional intake of 1500 mg of calcium twice daily is too much calcium, and 1000 IU of vitamin D is not enough to treat deficiency. An additional intake of 600 mg of calcium twice daily is too much calcium, and 2000 IU of vitamin D is not sufficient to treat deficiency. 623. A patient who has developed postmenopausal osteoporosis will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. The nurse will teach this patient to take the drug: a. at bedtime to minimize adverse effects. b. for a maximum of 1 to 2 years. c. while sitting upright with plenty of water. d. with coffee or orange juice to increase absorption. - Correct Answers: ANS: C Alendronate can cause esophagitis, and this risk can be minimized if the patient takes the drug with water while in an upright position. Taking the drug at bedtime is not indicated. The drug may be taken up to 5 years before re-evaluation is indicated. Coffee and orange juice reduce the absorption of alendronate and should be delayed for 30 minutes after taking the drug. 624. A patient is taking alendronate [Fosamax] to treat Paget disease. The patient asks the nurse why calcium supplements are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that calcium supplements are necessary to: a. reduce the likelihood of atrial fibrillation. b. maximize bone resorption of calcium. c. minimize the risk of esophageal cancer. d. prevent hyperparathyroidism. - Correct Answers: ANS: D Alendronate can induce hyperparathyroidism in patients with Paget disease; calcium supplementation can prevent this effect. Giving calcium does not reduce the incidence of atrial fibrillation, maximize bone resorption of calcium, or minimize the risk of esophageal cancer. 625. A patient who takes teriparatide [Forteo] administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. The patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. Which is the correct response by the nurse? a. "Go ahead and use the remaining drug; I know it is so expensive." b. "The drug may not be stable after 28 days." c. "You are probably not giving the drug accurately." d. "You should be giving the drug more frequently. - Correct Answers: ANS: B Teriparatide is supplied in 3-mL injectors. The pen should be stored in the refrigerator and discarded after 28 days, even if some drug remains in the syringe. Although the drug is expensive, it is not correct to use what is in the syringe after 28 days. Drug may be left in the syringe even with correct dosing. 626. A patient reports experiencing weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and nocturia. Total serum calcium is 10.5 mg/dL. A dipstick urinalysis shows a positive result for protein. When questioned, the patient reports taking vitamin D and calcium supplements. The nurse will counsel the patient to: a. reduce the amount of vitamin D and stop taking the calcium. b. discuss taking calcitonin-salmon [Fortical] with the provider. c. stop both supplements and discuss the use of a diuretic with the provider. d. stop taking vitamin D, reduce the amount of calcium, and increase the fluid intake. - Correct Answers: ANS: D Vitamin D toxicity can occur, and early responses include the symptoms described. Patients should be counseled to stop taking vitamin D, reduce their calcium intake, and increase their fluid intake. It is not correct to reduce the vitamin D intake and the calcium intake. Calcitonin-salmon is not indicated. A diuretic is indicated when hypercalciuria is severe. 627. A postmenopausal patient is at high risk for developing osteoporosis. The patient's prescriber orders raloxifene [Evista], and the nurse provides teaching about this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may experience breast tenderness while taking this drug." b. "I may experience fewer hot flashes while taking this drug." c. "I should discontinue this drug several weeks before any surgery." d. "I should walk as much as possible during long airline flights." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Like estrogen, raloxifene increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Patients taking this drug should be cautioned to take walks on long flights or whenever they must sit for long periods. The drug does not increase breast tenderness or decrease hot flashes. There is no need to discontinue this drug before surgery. 628. A nurse is providing education to a patient who will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. Which complication should the patient be instructed to report immediately? a. Difficulty swallowing b. Dizziness c. Drowsiness d. Pallor - Correct Answers: ANS: A Esophagitis is the most serious adverse effect of alendronate, sometimes resulting in ulceration. The nurse should instruct the patient to report difficulty swallowing immediately, because it can be a sign of esophageal injury. Dizziness is not an adverse effect of alendronate. Drowsiness is not a symptom associated with alendronate. Pallor is not a symptom associated with alendronate. 604. A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen? a. "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects." b. "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease." c. "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms." d. "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy." - Correct Answers: ANS: D At the beginning of therapy with fevuxostat, symptoms of gout may flare, so colchicine or NSAIDS are given for up to 6 months to alleviate this. The combination does not prevent effects on the liver. The febuxostat will be given indefinitely. 605. A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101° F and a rash. What will the nurse do? a. Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction. b. Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic. c. Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects. d. Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Allopurinol can cause a hypersensitivity syndrome, which is characterized by a rash and fever. If these occur, the drug should be discontinued immediately. The combination of ampicillin and allopurinol increases the risk of this reaction; if it occurs, the allopurinol, not the ampicillin, should be discontinued. Antihistamines are not indicated. Lowering the dose of allopurinol is not indicated. 606. A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do? a. Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects. b. Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. c. Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury. d. Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided. - Correct Answers: ANS: D Probenecid may exacerbate acute episodes of gout, so treatment with this drug should be delayed until the acute attack has passed. Probenecid has mild GI effects. Lowering the dose of the NSAID is not recommended. Patients should increase their fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury. 607. A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia, and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss __ the __ dose. a. increasing; allopurinol b. increasing; warfarin c. reducing; allopurinol d. reducing; warfarin - Correct Answers: ANS: D Allopurinol can inhibit hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes and thus delay the inactivation of other drugs. This is a particular concern in patients taking warfarin; therefore, the warfarin dose should be reduced when allopurinol is also used. It is not correct to increase the allopurinol dose, increase the warfarin dose, or reduce the allopurinol dose. 608. A patient who will begin taking colchicine for gout reports taking nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs, simvastatin, amoxicillin, and digoxin. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic while this patient is taking colchicine. b. Notify the provider about the potential risk of muscle injury when simvastatin is taken with colchicine. c. Request an order for cardiorespiratory monitoring because the patient is taking digoxin. d. Suggest that the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) be withdrawn during colchicine therapy. - Correct Answers: ANS: B Colchicine can cause rhabdomyolysis, and this risk is increased in patients who also take simvastatin or other statin drugs. Amoxicillin does not interact with colchicine. The side effects of digoxin are not increased by concurrent use with colchicine. NSAIDs can safely be taken with colchicine. 609. A patient who is hospitalized for an acute gout attack has received several doses of hourly oral colchicine but still reports moderate to severe pain. As the nurse prepares to administer the next dose, the patient begins vomiting. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss giving a lower dose of colchicine. b. Hold the medication and notify the prescriber. c. Explain that this is a common side effect that will soon stop. d. Request an order for an antiemetic so that the next dose of colchicine may be given. - Correct Answers: ANS: B Colchicine should be discontinued immediately, regardless of the status of the joint pain, if gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms occur. The patient's symptoms indicate injury to the GI endothelium. Once damage begins to occur, lowering the dose is not indicated. GI toxicity will not abate over time. An antiemetic may be useful for stopping the vomiting; however, continued administration of the drug can lead to further damage to the GI endothelium. 610. A patient with gout who has increasingly frequent acute gouty attacks will begin receiving allopurinol [Zyloprim] and colchicine. The nurse will include which statement when teaching the patient about this drug regimen? a. "Allopurinol helps reduce the gastrointestinal side effects of colchicine." b. "Allopurinol reduces the likelihood of gouty episodes that usually occur with initial colchicine therapy." c. "The colchicine is given to enhance the effects of the allopurinol." d. "You will take both drugs initially and then stop taking the colchicine." - Correct Answers: ANS: D Colchicine is used for prophylaxis when urate-lowering drugs, such as allopurinol, are initiated, because gouty episodes have a tendency to increase during this time. Patients start with both drugs, and ultimately the colchicine is withdrawn. Allopurinol does not affect the GI side effects caused by colchicine. Allopurinol may precipitate an acute gouty attack when treatment is begun; colchicine is given to prevent a gouty episode. Colchicine does not enhance the effects of allopurinol. 611. A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Colchicine b. Glucocorticoids c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d. Urate-lowering drugs - Correct Answers: ANS: D The provider will order a urate-lowering drug for this patient. The medication should be diluted and administered with 20 mL of sterile sodium chloride and administered over 5 minutes or longer. 612. A patient is admitted for treatment of gout that has been refractory to treatment with allopurinol and probenecid. The patient is taking colchicine, and the prescriber orders pegloticase [Krystexxa]. Before administering this drug, the nurse will expect to: a. administer an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid. b. discontinue the colchicine. c. increase the dose of colchicine. d. prepare to administer a bronchodilator if needed. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Because pegloticase poses a risk of triggering anaphylaxis, patients should be pretreated with an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid. Colchicine is indicated at the initiation of treatment with pegloticase to reduce the intensity of gout flare-ups. Bronchodilators are not indicated. 596. A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test. A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to: a. begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept. b. have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept. c. have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis. d. undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment. - Correct Answers: ANS: D Since tuberculosis (TB) in a patient taking etanercept is often extrapulmonary and disseminated, it is important to test all patients for TB. Those who test positive for latent TB should be treated for TB before etanercept treatment is begun. It is not correct to begin TB treatment concurrently with etanercept treatment. Latent TB must be treated and not monitored. 597. A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug? a. That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective b. To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept c. That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept d. That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective - Correct Answers: ANS: C Abatacept suppresses immune function and can increase the risk of serious infection. Parents should report any signs of infection, which may warrant discontinuation of abatacept. Abatacept may be taken alone. Abatacept may blunt the effectiveness of vaccines, and vaccines should be up to date prior to therapy and may need to be delayed until 3 months after therapy. Live vaccines should be avoided. Abatacept should not be given with TNF antagonists because of the increased risk of serious infections. 598. A patient will begin taking hydroxychloroquine [Plaquenil] for rheumatoid arthritis. The patient is currently taking high-dose NSAIDs and methotrexate. What will the nurse teach the patient? a. That an eye examination is necessary at the beginning of therapy with this drug b. That the dose of NSAIDs may be decreased when beginning hydroxychloroquine c. To obtain tests of renal and hepatic function while taking this drug d. To stop taking methotrexate when starting hydroxychloroquine - Correct Answers: ANS: A Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage so an eye examination is necessary at the onset of treatment as well as every 6 months during treatment. Patients taking other drugs should continue to take those when beginning treatment with hydroxychloroquine since full therapeutic effects take months to develop. Renal and hepatic toxicity are not concerns. The drug is usually combined with methotrexate. 599. A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept __ methotrexate. a. has synergistic effects with b. helps reduce adverse effects associated with c. is better at delaying progression of joint damage than d. has fewer adverse effects than - Correct Answers: ANS: C Etanercept has been shown to reduce symptoms in patients with moderate to severe RA who have not responded to methotrexate. It does not have synergistic effects with methotrexate or reduce adverse effects of methotrexate. It has many adverse effects. 600. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide [Arava] and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her? a. That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy. b. That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it. c. To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine. d. To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception. - Correct Answers: ANS: C Leflunomide is contraindicated during pregnancy. Patients desiring pregnancy must follow a three- step protocol that includes stopping the drug, taking cholestyramine to chelate the leflunomide, and ensuring that leflunomide drug levels are below 20 μg/L before getting pregnant. Leflunomide is teratogenic and is not safe during pregnancy. Plasma levels of leflunomide may take 2 years to drop without using cholestyramine. It is not correct to stop taking leflunomide without following the protocol. 601. A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of: a. having routine renal and hepatic function tests. b. limiting folic acid consumption. c. reporting alopecia and rash. d. taking the medication on a daily basis. - Correct Answers: ANS: A Periodic tests of renal and liver function are mandatory for patients taking methotrexate. Patients taking methotrexate should take folic acid supplements. Alopecia and rash are not worrisome side effects. Methotrexate is taken once weekly. 602. A nurse is discussing the administration of an intravenous infusion of rituximab (Rituxan) with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education about the care of a patient receiving this drug? a. "Angioedema and hypersensitivity may occur, but they are usually self-limiting and mild." b. "I should be prepared to administer epinephrine, glucocorticoids, and oxygen if needed." c. "I will administer an antihistamine and acetaminophen before beginning the infusion." d. "I will monitor this patient's blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation closely." - Correct Answers: ANS: A Rituximab can cause severe infusion-related hypersensitivity reactions. Nurses should be prepared to administer epinephrine, steroids, and O2 if needed. Antihistamines and acetaminophen are given before infusion. Close monitoring of vital signs and oxygenation are indicated. 603. A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that: a. a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment. b. starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration. c. starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy. d. with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels. - Correct Answers: ANS: B Current guidelines for treatment of RA recommend starting a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) early—within 3 months of diagnosis for most patients—in order to delay joint degeneration. Methotrexate may take up to 3 to 6 weeks to be at therapeutic levels, so NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be continued until this occurs. Methotrexate is expensive and has more toxic side effects. Patients taking methotrexate have been shown in some data to have decreased life expectancy. Patients may eventually be able to stop taking NSAIDs altogether. 731. The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse? a. It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs. b. It enhances the effects of digoxin. c. It co