Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers part 2 questions and answers.docx

  Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: 1. Induce the metabolism of another drug 2. Inhibit the metabolism of another drug 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 3 Medication agreements or "Pain Medication Contracts" are recommended to be used: 1. Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain 2. For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication 3. When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior 4. For patients with pain associated with malignancy - Correct Answers: 1 Drugs that are prone to cause adverse drug effects include: 1. Diuretics 2. Inhaled anticholinergics 3. Insulins 4. Stimulants - Correct Answers: 3 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration MedWatch system is activated when: 1. There is an adverse event to a vaccine. 2. The patient has a severe reaction that is noted in the "Severe Reaction" section in the medication label. 3. A lactating woman takes a medication that is potentially toxic to the breastfeeding infant. 4. An adverse event or serious problem occurs with a medication that is not already identified on the label. - Correct Answers: 4 The Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System is: 1. A mandatory reporting system for all health-care providers when they encounter an adverse vaccine event 2. A voluntary reporting system that health-care providers or consumers may use to report vaccine adverse events 3. Utilized to send out safety alerts regarding emerging vaccine safety issues 4. Activated when a vaccine has been proven to cause significant adverse effects - Correct Answers: 2 A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment? 1. Financial status 2. Mobility 3. Social support 4. Sexual practices - Correct Answers: 4 Elena Vasquez's primary language is Spanish, and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed? 1. Use correct medical terminology because Spanish has a Latin base. 2. Use a family member who speaks more English to act as an interpreter. 3. Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can act as an interpreter. 4. Use careful, detailed explanations. - Correct Answers: 3 Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug? 1. Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly. 2. Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice. 3. Write down the instructions as well as speaking them. 4. If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds. - Correct Answers: 4 Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient's adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen? 1. Complexity of the drug regimen 2. Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 3 The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier? 1. Increasing copayments for care 2. Unrestricted formularies for drugs, including brand names 3. Increasing the number of people who have access to care 4. Treating a wider range of disorders - Correct Answers: 1 Ralph's blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent? 1. Ralph states that he always takes the drug "when I feel my pressure is going up." 2. Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dosage. 3. Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure. 4. All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen. - Correct Answers: 1 Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that: 1. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect 2. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down 3. Has a tolerability profile with fewer of the adverse effects that are considered "irritating," such as nausea and dizziness 4. Must be taken no more than twice a day - Correct Answers: 3 Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to nonadherence include: 1. The complexity of the treatment regimen 2. The length of time over which it must be taken 3. Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when: 1. The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them 2. Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed 3. They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs 4. The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacological terms - Correct Answers: 2 Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs: 1. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve 2. In oral formulations that are more easily taken 3. That do not require frequent monitoring 4. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent - Correct Answers: 1 Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence? 1. Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times-per-day dosing. 2. Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled. 3. Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills. 4. Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug. - Correct Answers: 4 Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include: 1. Older adults and those on fixed incomes 2. Patients with chronic illnesses 3. Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance 4. Patients on public assistance - Correct Answers: 1 Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who: 1. Are well-educated and affluent 2. Have chronic conditions 3. Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms 4. None of the above guarantee adherence - Correct Answers: 4 Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including: 1. Patient reports from data in a drug diary 2. Pill counts 3. Laboratory reports and other diagnostic markers 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Factors that explain and predict medication adherence include: 1. Social 2. Financial 3. Health system 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s): 1. Who the decision maker is in the family regarding health-care decisions 2. The patient's view of health and illness 3. Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Ethnic differences have been found in drug: 1. Absorption 2. Hepatic metabolism 3. Filtration at the glomerulus 4. Passive tubular reabsorption - Correct Answers: 2 The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services are required to be implemented in all: 1. Hospitals 2. Clinics that serve the poor 3. Organizations that receive federal funds 4. Clinics that serve ethnic minorities - Correct Answers: 3 According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services, an interpreter for health care: 1. May be a bilingual family member 2. May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider 3. Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter 4. Must be an employee of the organization - Correct Answers: 3 According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to: 1. The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs 2. Poor compliance on the part of the African American patient 3. The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans 4. Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care - Correct Answers: 4 The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are: 1. Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs 2. Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population 3. Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance 4. Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction - Correct Answers: 2 Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups. 1. True 2. False - Correct Answers: 2 Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to: 1. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses 2. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses 3. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses 4. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses - Correct Answers: 1 Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators: 1. Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs 2. Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization 3. May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization 4. Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy - Correct Answers: 4 Hispanic native healers (curanderas): 1. Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States 2. Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness 3. Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted 4. Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States - Correct Answers: 2 Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including: 1. Poor metabolizers, who lack a working enzyme 2. Intermediate metabolizers, who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele 3. Extensive metabolizers, with two normally functioning alleles 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to: 1. A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity 2. Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors 3. Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6 4. The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers - Correct Answers: 2 Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may: 1. Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely 2. Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when coadministered 3. Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure 4. Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism - Correct Answers: 3 Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to: 1. Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine 2. Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine 3. Decreased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination 4. Increased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination - Correct Answers: 4 Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to: 1. Toxic levels of warfarin building up 2. Decreased response to warfarin 3. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin 4. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin - Correct Answers: 2 Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin. 1. True 2. False - Correct Answers: 2 Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration prior to prescribing: 1. Erythromycin 2. Digoxin 3. Cetuximab 4. Rifampin - Correct Answers: 3 Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to: 1. Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele 2. Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele 3. Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele 4. Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine - Correct Answers: 3 A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to: 1. Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer 2. Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia 3. Delayed metabolism of the prodrug irinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38 4. Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic - Correct Answers: 2 Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have: 1. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug 2. Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs 3. A need for increased dosages of medications 4. Increased elimination of an active drug - Correct Answers: 1 Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have: 1. To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation 2. Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure 3. Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug 4. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to an accumulation of prodrug - Correct Answers: 2 A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to: 1. Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen 2. Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen 3. Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment 4. Identify poor metabolizers of tamoxifen - Correct Answers: 3 A good history of herb and supplement use is critical before prescribing because approximately ____ % of patients in the United States are using herbal products. 1. 10 2. 5 3. 38 4. 70 - Correct Answers: 3 A potential harmful effect on patients who take some herbal medication is: 1. Constipation 2. Lead poisoning 3. Diarrhea 4. Life-threatening rash - Correct Answers: 2 A thorough understanding of herbs is critical to patient safety. An example is the use of cinnamon to treat type II diabetes. It is important the patient uses Ceylon cinnamon, as the commercially available cassia cinnamon contains: 1. Coumadin, which may lead to bleeding problems 2. Coumarin, which can cause liver and kidney damage 3. Cinnamic aldehyde, which is toxic to the kidney 4. Cinnamate eugenol, which is toxic to the liver - Correct Answers: 2 Traditional Chinese medicine utilizes yin (cooling) versus yang (warming) in assessing and treating disease. Menopause is considered a time of imbalance, therefore the Chinese herbalist would prescribe: 1. Herbs which are yang in nature 2. Herbs that are yin in nature 3. Ginger 4. Golden seal - Correct Answers: 2 According to traditional Chinese medicine, if a person who has a fever is given a herb that is yang in nature, such as golden seal, the patient's illness will: 1. Get worse 2. Get better 3. Not be adequately treated 4. Need additional herbs to treat the yan - Correct Answers: 1 In Ayurvedic medicine, treatment is based on the patient's dominant dosha, which is referred to as the person's: 1. Vata 2. Pitta 3. Kapha 4. Prakriti - Correct Answers: 4 Herbs and supplements are regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. 1. True 2. False - Correct Answers: 2 When melatonin is used to induce sleep, the recommendation is that the patient: 1. Take 10 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly 2. Take 1 to 5 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly 3. Not take melatonin more than three nights a week 4. Combine melatonin with zolpidem (Ambien) for the greatest impact on sleep - Correct Answers: 3 Valerian tea causes relaxation and can be used to help a patient fall asleep. Overdosage of valerian (more than 2.5 gm/dose) may lead to: 1. Cardiac disturbances 2. Central nervous system depression 3. Respiratory depression 4. Skin rashes - Correct Answers: 1 The standard dosage of St John's wort for the treatment of mild depression is: 1. 300 mg daily 2. 100 mg three times a day 3. 300 mg three times a day 4. 600 mg three times a day - Correct Answers: 3 Patients need to be instructed regarding the drug interactions with St John's wort, including: 1. MAO inhibitors 2. Serotonin reuptake inhibitors 3. Over-the-counter cough and cold medications 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Ginseng, which is taken to assist with memory, may potentiate: 1. Aricept 2. Insulin 3. Digoxin 4. Propranolol - Correct Answers: 2 Licorice root is a common treatment for dyspepsia. Drug interactions with licorice include: 1. Antihypertensives, diuretics, and digoxin 2. Antidiarrheals, antihistamines, and omeprazole 3. Penicillin antibiotic class and benzodiazepines 4. None of the above - Correct Answers: 1 Patients should be warned about the overuse of topical wintergreen oil to treat muscle strains, as overapplication can lead to: 1. Respiratory depression 2. Cardiac disturbance 3. Salicylates poisoning 4. Life-threatening rashes - Correct Answers: 3 The role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to: 1. Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies 2. Recommend common over-the-counter herbs to patients 3. Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care 4. Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers - Correct Answers: 3 Being competent in the use of information technology in clinical practice is expected in professional nurses. Advanced practice competence includes the ability to: 1. Search for information using the most common search engines 2. Serve as content experts in developing, implementing, and evaluating information systems 3. Write programs to assure the integrity of health information 4. Use information technology to prescribe drugs - Correct Answers: 2 You are going to prescribe a drug and the electronic health record (EHR) alerts you that there is a potential drug-drug interaction. The alert is generated by: 1. The Food and Drug Administration MedWatch system 2. TOXNET, the National Institutes of Health alert system 3. The EHR clinical decision support system 4. Lexicomp, a commercial medication alert system - Correct Answers: 3 Which of the following is a primary benefit of the use of computerized provider order entry for patient medications? 1. Reduces time that prescribing drugs takes 2. Eliminates the need to chart drugs prescribed 3. Decreases prescribing and transcription errors 4. Helps keep the number of drugs prescribed to a minimum - Correct Answers: 3 A number of barriers and concerns exist before the goals of a safe and efficient information technology (IT) system can be realized. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to adoption and use of IT in prescribing drugs? 1. Cost of initial setup 2. Access to highly skilled experts 3. Compatibility between systems 4. Patient confidentiality risks - Correct Answers: 2 EHRs: 1. Are being discouraged by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services due to cost issues 2. Allow for all patient data to be centralized in one location for access by multiple providers 3. Use macros and templates to individualize care 4. Use standardized software to facilitate interoperability between systems - Correct Answers: 2 Factors that facilitate keeping patient information confidential in an electronic health record (EHR) system include: 1. Designing software so that only those who need the information can gain access 2. Requiring providers to log off at the end of the clinical day 3. Keeping a file of the login and password information for each provider in a secure place 4. Having patients sign informed consent documents to have their data on an EHR - Correct Answers: 1 Decision support systems often provide medication alerts that tell the prescriber: 1. Patient history data with a summary of their diagnoses 2. The usual dosage for the drug being prescribed 3. The patient's latest laboratory values, such as potassium levels 4. Potential drug-to-drug interactions with other medications the patient is taking - Correct Answers: 4 Prescribers have been shown to override a medication alert about a patient's allergies when: 1. The history showed that the patient had tolerated the medication in the past 2. The benefit outweighed the risk 3. The medication was therapeutically appropriate and needed 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 The use of information technology for quality improvement in pharmacotherapeutics includes: 1. Incorporating the use of "apps" into all patient encounters 2. Tracking data trends within the practice via the electronic health record database 3. Informing patients that they have access to their medication list via the Internet 4. Using macros for individualizing patient care management - Correct Answers: 2 The advantage of using information technology for patient education includes: 1. The ability to track the number of times you have given the patient the same instructions regarding their medication 2. Standardized and individualized patient education that is simultaneously recorded into the patient record 3. Easy access to private patient information specific to populations with a similar diagnosis 4. The ability to download and interpret patient information in multiple languages, easily and accurately - Correct Answers: 2 One barrier to use of the Internet for both prescribing and for patient teaching is: 1. Lack of free public access to the Internet 2. Age, with older adults rarely understanding how to use a computer 3. Web pages and hyperlinks may change, be deleted, or be replaced 4. Few Web sites with information about drugs are free - Correct Answers: 3 Information technology can be a time-saving device in a busy practice if it is used wisely. One way to make it a help rather than a hindrance is to: 1. Prioritize what is needed information and avoid spending time reading "interesting" information not central to the problem at hand 2. Integrate professional and personal searching so that the same browser does not need to be accessed repeatedly 3. Check e-mail frequently so that patient questions can be addressed promptly 4. Check for viruses, spyware, and malware - Correct Answers: 1 Data in the electronic health record that the provider reviews prior to a patient encounter varies with the clinic setting. In an urgent care clinic, the provider should review: 1. The patient's current diagnosis and history 2. Drugs the patient is currently taking 3. Any recent previous encounter for the same problem as this visit and what was done 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 nformation technology (IT) can also be used to interact with a patient between encounters. Which of the following statements about such interactions is true? 1. Patients feel the provider does not care about them if they are not seen in a face-to-face encounter. 2. Data collected from patients between encounters via IT is less accurate and complete. 3. Collecting data between encounters via IT may mean a more efficient face-to-face encounter. 4. Between encounters is a good time to collect screening data. - Correct Answers: 3 Discharge summaries using information technology have several advantages. They can: 1. Replace the need for oral instruction because the patient has printed material to read at home 2. Be filed with the patient's chart to document patient teaching 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 2 Information technology can also be used for patient teaching during the encounter and after it. The provider can help patients and their families become savvy consumers of health-care information by: 1. Warning them about the questionable quality of health information online 2. Identifying easily used "apps" that patients can use to manage their medications 3. Teaching them how to identify high-quality Web sites and "red flags" signaling inaccurate content 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 3 Incorporating information technology (IT) into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by: 1. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded 2. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 3 Pharmacoeconomics is: 1. The study of the part of the U.S. economy devoted to drug use 2. The study of the impact of prescription drug costs on the overall economy 3. The analysis of the costs and consequences of any health-care-related treatment or service 4. The analysis of the clinical efficacy of the drug - Correct Answers: 3 The direct costs of drug therapy include: 1. The actual cost of acquiring the medication 2. The loss of income due to illness 3. Pain and suffering due to inadequate drug therapy 4. The cost of a funeral associated with premature death - Correct Answers: 3 Indirect costs associated with drug therapy include: 1. The cost of diagnostic tests to monitor therapeutic levels 2. Health-care provider time to prescribe and educate the patient 3. Child-care expenses incurred while receiving therapy 4. Loss of wages while undergoing drug therapy - Correct Answers: 4 The intangible costs of drug therapy include: 1. Loss of wages while undergoing therapy 2. Inconvenience, pain, and suffering incurred with therapy 3. Cost of medical equipment in the laboratory used to monitor therapeutic drug levels 4. Cost of prescription drug coverage, such as Medicare Part D - Correct Answers: 2 When a pharmacoeconomic analysis looks at two or more treatment alternatives that are considered equal in efficacy and compares the costs of each it is referred to as: 1. Cost-minimization analysis 2. Cost-of-illness analysis 3. Cost-effectiveness analysis 4. Cost-benefit analysis - Correct Answers: 1 Cost-effectiveness analysis compares two or more treatments or programs that are: 1. Not necessarily therapeutically equivalent 2. Considered equal in efficacy 3. Compared with the dollar value of the benefit received 4. Expressed in terms of patient preference or quality-adjusted life years - Correct Answers: 1 When the costs of a specific treatment or intervention are calculated and then compared with the dollar value of the benefit received it is referred to as: 1. Cost-minimization analysis 2. Cost-of-illness analysis 3. Cost-effectiveness analysis 4. Cost-benefit analysis - Correct Answers: 4 Mary has a two-tiered prescription benefit plan, which means: 1. She can receive differing levels of care based on whether she chooses an "in-plan" provider or not. 2. She is eligible for the new Medicare Part D "donut hole" reduction of costs program. 3. She pays a higher copay for brand-name drugs than for generic drugs. 4. She must always choose to be treated with generic drugs first. - Correct Answers: 3 Prescribing less-expensive generic drugs or drugs off the $4 retail pharmacy lists: 1. Increases the complexity of the pharmacoeconomics of prescribing for the individual patient 2. Increases compliance by reducing the financial burden of drug costs to the patient 3. Is not sound prescribing practice due to the inferiority of the generic products 4. Will increase the overall cost of drugs to the system due to the ease of overprescribing less-expensive drugs - Correct Answers: 2 James tells you that he is confused by his Medicare Part D coverage plan. An appropriate intervention would be: 1. Order cognitive testing to determine the source of his confusion. 2. Sit down with him and explain the whole Medicare Part D process. 3. Refer him to the Medicare specialist in his insurance plan to explain the benefit to him. 4. Request his son come to the next appointment so you can explain the benefit to him. - Correct Answers: 3 The "donut hole" in Medicare Part D: 1. Will be totally eliminated with the federal health-care reform enacted in 2010 2. Refers to the period of time when annual individual drug costs are between $250 and $2,250 per year and drug costs are covered 75% 3. Refers to the period between when the annual individual drug costs are $2,970 and $4,750 and the patient pays 52.5% of the costs of brand name drugs (2013) 4. Has no effect on whether patients continue to fill their prescriptions during the coverage gap - Correct Answers: 3 Research has shown that when patients who are covered by Medicare Part D reach the "donut hole" in coverage they: 1. Ask for extra refills of medication to get them through the months of no coverage 2. Fill their prescriptions less frequently, including critical medications such as warfarin or a statin 3. Fill their critical medications, but hold off on filling less-critical medications 4. Demonstrate no change in their prescription filling pattern - Correct Answers: 2 Michael asks you about why some drugs are over-the-counter and some are prescription. You explain that in order for a drug to be approved for over-the-counter use the drug must: 1. Be safe and labeled for appropriate use 2. Have a low potential for abuse or misuse 3. Be taken for a condition the patient can reliably self-diagnose 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 In the United States, over-the-counter drugs are regulated by: 1. No one. There is no oversight for over-the-counter medications. 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Center for Drug Evaluation and Research 3. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration 4. MedWatch - Correct Answers: 2 As drugs near the end of their patent, pharmaceutical companies may apply for the drug to change to over-the-counter status in order to: 1. Get a new patent for the over-the-counter form of the drug 2. Lower the costs because most prescription benefit plans do not cover generics 3. Market the drug to a whole new population, as they are able to market to patients instead of just providers 4. Continue to make large profits from their blockbuster brand-name drug - Correct Answers: 4 New over-the-counter drug ingredients must undergo the U.S. Food and Drug Administration New Drug Application process, just as prescription drugs do. 1. True 2. False - Correct Answers: 1 The ailment that generates the greatest over-the-counter annual drug sales is: 1. Constipation 2. Cough and colds 3. Heartburn 4. Acute and chronic pain - Correct Answers: 2 Common over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen: 1. Are always safer for the patient than prescription pain medication 2. Are harmful if taken in higher than recommended amounts 3. Have minimal interaction with prescription medications 4. Should never be given to children unless recommended by their provider - Correct Answers: 2 When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare ups. This is an example of: 1. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications 2. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you 3. A common misconception that intermittently taken over-the counter medications are not an important part of his drug history 4. A common misuse of over-the-counter aspirin - Correct Answers: 3 The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, which is part of the 2006 U.S. Patriot Act: 1. Requires all providers to screen their patients for methamphetamine use 2. Restricts the prescribing of amphetamines to U.S. citizens 3. Requires a prescription be written for all methamphetamine precursors in all states 4. Restricts the sales of drugs that contain methamphetamine precursors, including a daily and 30-day limit on sales - Correct Answers: 4 When prescribing a tetracycline or quinolone antibiotic it is critical to instruct the patient: 1. Not to take their regularly prescribed medications while on these antibiotics 2. Regarding the need for lots of acidic foods and juices, such as orange juice, to enhance absorption 3. Not to take antacids while on these medications, as the antacid decreases absorption 4. That there are no drug interactions with these antibiotics - Correct Answers: 3 Henry presents to clinic with a significantly swollen, painful great toe and is diagnosed with gout. Of the following, which would be the best treatment for Henry? 1. High-dose colchicine 2. Low-dose colchicine 3. High-dose aspirin 4. Acetaminophen with codeine - Correct Answers: 2 Patient education when prescribing colchicine includes: 1. Colchicine may be constipating. 2. Colchicine always causes some degree of diarrhea. 3. Mild muscle weakness is normal. 4. Moderate amounts of alcohol are safe with colchicine. - Correct Answers: 2 Larry is taking allopurinol to prevent gout. Monitoring of a patient who is taking allopurinol includes: 1. Complete blood count 2. Blood glucose 3. C-reactive protein 4. BUN, creatinine, and creatinine clearance - Correct Answers: 4 Phil is starting treatment with febuxostat (Uloric). Education of patients starting febuxostat includes: 1. Gout may worsen with therapy. 2. Febuxostat may cause severe diarrhea. 3. He should consume a high-calcium diet. 4. He will need frequent CBC monitoring. - Correct Answers: 1 Sallie has been taking 10 mg per day of prednisone for the past 6 months. She should be assessed for: 1. Gout 2. Iron deficiency anemia 3. Osteoporosis 4. Renal dysfunction - Correct Answers: 3 Patients whose total dose of prednisone will exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second prescription for: 1. Metformin, a biguanide to prevent diabetes 2. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor to prevent peptic ulcer disease 3. Naproxen, an NSAID to treat joint pain 4. Furosemide, a diuretic to treat fluid retention - Correct Answers: 2 Daniel has been on 60 mg of prednisone for 10 days to treat a severe asthma exacerbation. It is time to discontinue the prednisone. How is prednisone discontinued? 1. Patients with asthma are transitioned directly off the prednisone onto inhaled corticosteroids. 2. Prednisone can be abruptly discontinued with no adverse effects. 3. Develop a tapering schedule to slowly wean Daniel off the prednisone. 4. Substitute the prednisone with another anti-inflammatory such as ibuprofen - Correct Answers: 3 Patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are on chronic low-dose prednisone will need co-treatment with which medications to prevent further adverse effects? 1. A bisphosphonate 2. Calcium supplementation 3. Vitamin D 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of: 1. Serum glucose 2. Stool culture 3. Folate levels 4. Vitamin B12 - Correct Answers: 1 Patients who are on chronic long-term corticosteroid therapy need education regarding: 1. Receiving all vaccinations, especially the live flu vaccine 2. Reporting black tarry stools or abdominal pain 3. Eating a high carbohydrate diet with plenty of fluids 4. Small amounts of alcohol are generally tolerated. - Correct Answers: 2 All nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) have an FDA Black Box Warning regarding: 1. Potential for causing life-threatening GI bleeds 2. Increased risk of developing systemic arthritis with prolonged use 3. Risk of life-threatening rashes, including Stevens-Johnson 4. Potential for transient changes in serum glucose - Correct Answers: 1 Jamie has fractured his ankle and has received a prescription for acetaminophen and hydrocodone (Vicodin). Education when prescribing Vicodin includes: 1. It is okay to double the dose of Vicodin if the pain is severe. 2. Vicodin is not habit-forming. 3. He should not take any other acetaminophen-containing medications. 4. Vicodin may cause diarrhea; increase his fluid intake. - Correct Answers: 3 When prescribing NSAIDS, a complete drug history should be conducted as NSAIDs interact with these drugs: 1. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor 2. Combined oral contraceptives 3. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine 4. Warfarin, an anticoagulant - Correct Answers: 4 Josefina is a 2-year-old child with acute otitis media and an upper respiratory infection. Along with an antibiotic she receives a recommendation to treat the ear pain with ibuprofen. What education would her parent need regarding ibuprofen? 1. They can cut an adult ibuprofen tablet in half to give Josefina. 2. The ibuprofen dose can be doubled for severe pain. 3. Josefina needs to be well-hydrated while taking ibuprofen. 4. Ibuprofen is completely safe in children with no known adverse effects - Correct Answers: 3 Henry is 82 years old and takes two aspirin every morning to treat the arthritis pain in his back. He states the aspirin helps him to "get going" each day. Lately he has had some heartburn from the aspirin. After ruling out an acute GI bleed, what would be an appropriate course of treatment for Henry? 1. Add an H2 blocker such as ranitidine to his therapy. 2. Discontinue the aspirin and switch him to Vicodin for the pain. 3. Decrease the aspirin dose to one tablet daily. 4. Have Henry take an antacid 15 minutes before taking the aspirin each day. - Correct Answers: 1 The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is: 1. 48 hours 2. 4 to 6 days 3. 4 weeks 4. 2 months - Correct Answers: 2 Patients prescribed aspirin therapy require education regarding the signs of aspirin toxicity. An early sign of aspirin toxicity is: 1. Black tarry stools 2. Vomiting 3. Tremors 4. Tinnitus - Correct Answers: 4 Monitoring a patient on a high-dose aspirin level includes: 1. Salicylate level 2. Complete blood count 3. Urine pH 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Patients who are on long-term aspirin therapy should have ______ annually. 1. Complete blood count 2. Salicylate level 3. Amylase 4. Urine analysis - Correct Answers: 1 Different areas of the brain are involved in specific aspects of pain. The reticular and limbic systems in the brain influence the: 1. Sensory aspects of pain 2. Discriminative aspects of pain 3. Motivational aspects of pain 4. Cognitive aspects of pain - Correct Answers: 3 Patients need to be questioned about all pain sites because: 1. Patients tend to report the most severe or important in their perception. 2. Pain tolerance generally decreases with repeated exposure. 3. The reported pain site is usually the most important to treat. 4. Pain may be referred from a different site to the one reported. - Correct Answers: 1 The chemicals that promote the spread of pain locally include: 1. Serotonin 2. Norepinephrine 3. Enkephalin 4. Neurokinin A - Correct Answers: 4 Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by: 1. Inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord 2. Attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P 3. Blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain 4. Increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary gland - Correct Answers: 2 Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is NOT true? 1. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways. 2. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child. 3. Increases in the pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness. 4. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults. - Correct Answers: 1 Which of the following statements is true about acute pain? 1. Somatic pain comes from body surfaces and is only sharp and well-localized. 2. Visceral pain comes from the internal organs and is most responsive to acetaminophen and opiates. 3. Referred pain is present in a distant site for the pain source and is based on activation of the same spinal segment as the actual pain site. 4. Acute neuropathic pain is caused by lack of blood supply to the nerves in a given area. - Correct Answers: 3 One of the main drug classes used to treat acute pain is NSAIDs. They are used because: 1. They have less risk for liver damage than acetaminophen. 2. Inflammation is a common cause of acute pain. 3. They have minimal GI irritation. 4. Regulation of blood flow to the kidney is not affected by these drugs. - Correct Answers: 2 Opiates are used mainly to treat moderate to severe pain. Which of the following is NOT true about these drugs? 1. All opiates are scheduled drugs which require a DEA license to prescribe. 2. Opiates stimulate only mu receptors for the control of pain. 3. Most of the adverse effects of opiates are related to mu receptor stimulation. 4. Naloxone is an antagonist to opiates. - Correct Answers: 2 If interventions to resolve the cause of pain (e.g., rest, ice, compression, and elevation) are insufficient, pain medications are given based on the severity of pain. Drugs are given in which order of use? 1. NSAIDs, opiates, corticosteroids 2. Low-dose opiates, salicylates, increased dose of opiates 3. Opiates, non-opiates, increased dose of non-opiate 4. Non-opiate, increased dose of non-opiate, opiate - Correct Answers: 4 The goal of treatment of acute pain is: 1. Pain at a tolerable level where the patient may return to activities of daily living 2. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects 3. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions 4. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs - Correct Answers: 3 Which of the following statements is true about age and pain? 1. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children. 2. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs. 3. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain. 4. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs. - Correct Answers: 4 Pain assessment to determine adequacy of pain management is important for all patients. This assessment is done to: 1. Determine if the diagnosis of source of pain is correct 2. Determine if the current regimen is adequate or different combinations of drugs and non-drug therapy are required 3. Determine if the patient is willing and able to be an active participant in his or her pain management 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Pathological similarities and differences between acute pain and chronic pain include: 1. Both have decreased levels of endorphins. 2. Chronic pain has a predominance of C-neuron stimulation. 3. Acute pain is most commonly associated with irritation of peripheral nerves. 4. Acute pain is diffuse and hard to localize. - Correct Answers: 2 A treatment plan for management of chronic pain should include: 1. Negotiation with the patient to set personal goals for pain management 2. Discussion of ways to improve sleep and stress 3. An exercise program to improve function and fitness 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Chronic pain is a complex problem. Some specific strategies to deal with it include: 1. Telling the patient to "let pain be your guide" to using treatment therapies 2. Prescribing pain medication on a "PRN" basis to keep down the amount used 3. Scheduling return visits on a regular basis rather than waiting for poor pain control to drive the need for an appointment 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 3 Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a "red flag" about potential chemical dependency? 1. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain 2. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill 3. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines 4. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs - Correct Answers: 2 The Pain Management Contract is appropriate for: 1. Patients with cancer who are taking morphine 2. Patients with chronic pain who will require long-term use of opiates 3. Patients who have a complex drug regimen 4. Patients who see multiple providers for pain control - Correct Answers: 2 The most frequent type of drug-food interaction is food: 1. Causing increased therapeutic drug levels 2. Affecting the metabolism of the drug 3. Altering the volume of distribution of drugs 4. Affecting the gastrointestinal absorption of drugs - Correct Answers: 4 Food in the gastrointestinal tract affects drug absorption by: 1. Altering the pH of the colon, which decreases absorption 2. Competing with the drug for plasma proteins 3. Altering gastric emptying time 4. Altering the pH of urin - Correct Answers: 3 Food can alter the pH of the stomach, leading to: 1. Enhanced drug metabolism 2. Altered vitamin K absorption 3. Increased vitamin D absorption 4. Altered drug bioavailability - Correct Answers: 4 Fasting for an extended period can: 1. Increase drug absorption due to lack of competition between food and the drug 2. Alter the pH of the gastrointestinal tract, affecting absorption 3. Cause vasoconstriction, leading to decreased drug absorption 4. Shrink the stomach, causing decreased surface area for drug absorption - Correct Answers: 3 Tetracycline needs to be given on an empty stomach because it chelates with: 1. Calcium 2. Magnesium 3. Iron 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 A low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet may: 1. Increase drug-metabolizing enzymes 2. Decrease drug absorption from the GI tract 3. Alter drug binding to plasma proteins 4. Enhance drug elimination - Correct Answers: 1 Grapefruit juice contains furanocoumarins that have been found to: 1. Alter absorption of drugs through competition for binding sites 2. Inhibit CYP 3A4, leading to decreased first-pass metabolism of drugs 3. Alter vitamin K metabolism, leading to prolonged bleeding 4. Enhance absorption of calcium and vitamin D - Correct Answers: 2 Cruciferous vegetables may alter drug pharmacokinetics by: 1. Enhancing absorption of weakly acidic drugs 2. Altering CYP 3A4 activity, leading to elevated levels of drugs, such as the statins 3. Inducing CYP 1A2, possibly leading to therapeutic failure of drugs metabolized by CYP 1A2 4. Decreasing first-pass metabolism of drugs - Correct Answers: 3 Milk and other foods that alkalinize the urine may: 1. Result in basic drugs being reabsorbed in the renal tubule 2. Increase the elimination of basic drugs in the urine 3. Decrease the elimination of acidic drugs 4. Not alter drug elimination due to the minimal change in urine pH - Correct Answers: 1 Antacids such as calcium carbonate (Tums) can reduce the absorption of which of the following nutrients? 1. Protein 2. Calcium 3. Iron 4. Vitamin K - Correct Answers: 3 Phenytoin decreases folic acid absorption by: 1. Altering the pH of the stomach 2. Increasing gastric emptying time 3. Inhibiting intestinal enzymes required for folic acid absorption 4. Chelation of the folic acid into inactive ingredients - Correct Answers: 3 Patients taking warfarin need to be educated about the vitamin K content of foods to avoid therapeutic failure. Foods high in vitamin K that should be limited to no more than one serving per day include: 1. Spinach 2. Milk 3. Romaine lettuce 4. Cauliflower - Correct Answers: 1 The American Dietetic Association has recommended the use of specific nutritional supplements in the following population(s): 1. 400 IU per day of vitamin D in all infants and children 2. 1,000 IU per day of vitamin D for all pregnant women 3. 60 mg per day of iron for all adults over age 50 years 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 1 The American Dietetic Association recommends pregnant women take a supplement including: 1. 1,000 IU daily of vitamin D 2. 2.4 mcg/day of vitamin B12 3. 600 mcg/day of folic acid 4. 8 mg/day of iron - Correct Answers: 3 The American Heart Association and the American Dietetic Association recommend a minimum daily fiber intake of ______ for cardiovascular health: 1. 10 mg/day 2. 15 mg/day 3. 20 mg/day 4. 25 mg/day - Correct Answers: 4 Which of the following vitamin or mineral supplements may by teratogenic if a pregnant woman takes more than the recommended amount? 1. Iron 2. Vitamin A 3. Vitamin B6 4. Vitamin C - Correct Answers: 2 Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) may be prescribed to: 1. Decrease the incidence of beriberi 2. Reduce headaches and migraines 3. Prevent pernicious anemia 4. Treat hyperlipidemia - Correct Answers: 2 Isoniazid (INH) may induce a deficiency of which vitamin? 1. B6 2. C 3. D 4. E - Correct Answers: 1 Pregnant patients who are taking isoniazid (INH) should take 25 mg/day of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent: 1. Beriberi 2. Peripheral neuropathy 3. Rickets 4. Megaloblastic anemia - Correct Answers: 2 Vitamin B12 deficiency may lead to: 1. Hair loss 2. Insomnia 3. Dry scales on the scalp 4. Numbness and tingling of the hand - Correct Answers: 4 Smokers are at risk for vitamin C deficiency. It is recommended that smokers take _______ vitamin C supplement. 1. 100 mg/day 2. 500 mg/day 3. 1,000 mg/day 4. 35 mg/day more than nonsmokers - Correct Answers: 4 There is strong evidence to support that adequate vitamin C intake prevents: 1. The common cold 2. Breast cancer 3. Scurvy 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 3 Adequate vitamin D is needed for: 1. Absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract 2. Regulation of serum calcium levels 3. Regulation of serum phosphate levels 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Newborns are at risk for early vitamin K deficiency bleeding and the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all newborns receive: 1. IM vitamin K (phytonadione) within 24 hours of birth 2. Oral vitamin K supplementation in the first 3 weeks of life 3. Formula containing vitamin K or breast milk 4. Oral vitamin K in the first 24 hours after birth - Correct Answers: 1 Symptoms of folate deficiency include: 1. Thinning of the hair 2. Bruising easily 3. Glossitis 4. Numbness and tingling of the hands and feet - Correct Answers: 3 A patient with a new onset of systolic ejection murmur should be assessed for which nutritional deficiency? 1. Vitamin B12 2. Vitamin C 3. Folate 4. Niacine - Correct Answers: 3 According to the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey study of dietary intake, the group at highest risk for inadequate calcium intake was: 1. The elderly (over age 60 years) 2. Teenage females 3. Teenage males 4. Preschoolers - Correct Answers: 2 Patients with iron deficiency will develop: 1. Hemolytic anemia 2. Megaloblastic anemia 3. Macrocytic-hypochromic anemia 4. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia - Correct Answers: 4 There is evidence that dietary supplementation or adequate intake of fish oils and omega-3 fatty acids have well-documented: 1. Concern for developing cardiac dysrhythmias 2. Anti-inflammatory effects 3. Total cholesterol-lowering effects 4. Effects on fasting blood sugar - Correct Answers: 2 There is enough preliminary evidence to recommend that children with autism receive which supplemental nutrient? 1. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) 2. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) 3. Calcium 4. Omega-3 fatty acids - Correct Answers: 4 There is sufficient evidence to support the use of omega-3 fatty acids to treat the following disease(s): 1. Asthma 2. Autism 3. Arthritis 4. All of the abov - Correct Answers: 2 It is reasonable to recommend supplementation with _________ in the treatment of hyperlipidemia. 1. Omega-3 fatty acids 2. Probiotics 3. Plant sterols 4. Calcium - Correct Answers: 3 Probiotics are recommended to be co-administered when ____________ are prescribed: 1. Antacids 2. Antihypertensives 3. Antidiarrheals 4. Antibiotics - Correct Answers: 4 It is reasonable to add ___________ to a Helicobacter pylori treatment regimen to improve eradication rates of H. pylori. 1. Probiotics 2. Omega-3 fatty acids 3. Plant sterols 4. Fiber - Correct Answers: 1 Charlie is a 65-year-old male who has been diagnosed with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Doxazosin has been chosen to treat his hypertension because it: 1. Increases peripheral vasoconstriction 2. Decreases detrusor muscle contractility 3. Lowers supine blood pressure more than standing pressure 4. Relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck - Correct Answers: 4 To reduce potential adverse effects, patients taking a peripherally acting alpha1 antagonist should do all of the following EXCEPT: 1. Take the dose at bedtime 2. Sit up slowly and dangle their feet before standing 3. Monitor their blood pressure and skip a dose if the pressure is less than 120/80 4. Weigh daily and report weight gain of greater than 2 pounds in one day - Correct Answers: 3 John has clonidine, a centrally acting adrenergic blocker, prescribed for his hypertension. He should: 1. Not miss a dose or stop taking the drug because of potential rebound hypertension 2. Increase fiber in the diet to treat any diarrhea that may occur 3. Reduce fluid intake to less than 2 liters per day to prevent fluid retention 4. Avoid sitting for long periods, as this can lead to deep vein thrombosis - Correct Answers: 1 Clonidine has several off-label uses, including: 1. Alcohol and nicotine withdrawal 2. Post-herpetic neuralgia 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 3 Jim is being treated for hypertension. Because he has a history of heart attack, the drug chosen is atenolol. Beta blockers treat hypertension by: 1. Increasing heart rate to improve cardiac output 2. Reducing vascular smooth muscle tone 3. Increasing aldosterone-mediated volume activity 4. Reducing aqueous humor production - Correct Answers: 2 Which of the following adverse effects are less likely in a beta1-selective blocker? 1. Dysrhythmias 2. Impaired insulin release 3. Reflex orthostatic changes 4. Decreased triglycerides and cholesterol - Correct Answers: 2 Richard is 70 years old and has a history of cardiac dysrhythmias. He has been prescribed nadolol. You do his annual laboratory work and find a CrCl of 25 ml/min. What action should you take related to his nadolol? 1. Extend the dosage interval. 2. Decrease the dose by 75%. 3. Take no action because this value is expected in the older adult. 4. Schedule a serum creatinine level to validate the CrCl value - Correct Answers: 1 Beta blockers are the drugs of choice for exertional angina because they: 1. Improve myocardial oxygen supply by vasodilating the coronary arteries 2. Decrease myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and vascular resistance 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 2 Adherence to beta blocker therapy may be affected by their: 1. Short half-lives requiring twice daily dosing 2. Tendency to elevate lipid levels 3. Effects on the male genitalia, which may produce impotence 4. None of the above - Correct Answers: 3 Beta blockers have favorable effects on survival and disease progression in heart failure. Treatment should be initiated when the: 1. Symptoms are severe 2. Patient has not responded to other therapies 3. Patient has concurrent hypertension 4. Left ventricular dysfunction is diagnosed - Correct Answers: 4 Abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers can be life threatening. Patients at highest risk for serious consequences of rapid withdrawal are those with: 1. Angina 2. Coronary artery disease 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 3 To prevent life-threatening events from rapid withdrawal of a beta blocker: 1. The dosage interval should be increased by 1 hour each day. 2. An alpha blocker should be added to the treatment regimen before withdrawal. 3. The dosage should be tapered over a period of weeks. 4. The dosage should be decreased by one-half every 4 days. - Correct Answers: 4 Beta blockers are prescribed for diabetics with caution because of their ability to produce hypoglycemia and block the common symptoms of it. Which of the following symptoms of hypoglycemia is not blocked by these drugs and so can be used to warn diabetics of possible decreased blood glucose? 1. Dizziness 2. Increased heart rate 3. Nervousness and shakiness 4. Diaphoresis - Correct Answers: 4 Combined alpha-beta antagonists are used to reduce the progression of heart failure because they: 1. Vasodilate the peripheral vasculature 2. Decrease cardiac output 3. Increase renal vascular resistance 4. Reduce atherosclerosis secondary to elevated serum lipoproteins - Correct Answers: 1 Carvedilol is heavily metabolized by CYP2D6 and 2C9, resulting in drug interactions with which of the following drug classes? 1. Histamine 2 blockers 2. Quinolones 3. Serotonin re-uptake inhibitors 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Alpha-beta blockers are especially effective to treat hypertension for which ethnic group? 1. White 2. Asian 3. African American 4. Native American - Correct Answers: 3 Bethanechol: 1. Increases detrusor muscle tone to empty the bladder 2. Decreases gastric acid secretion to treat peptic ulcer disease 3. Stimulates voluntary muscle tone to improve strength 4. Reduces bronchial airway constriction to treat asthma - Correct Answers: 1 Clinical dosing of Bethanechol: 1. Begins at the highest effective dose to obtain a rapid response 2. Starts at 5 mg to 10 mg PO and is repeated every hour until a satisfactory clinical response is achieved 3. Requires dosing only once daily 4. Is the same for both the oral and parenteral route - Correct Answers: 2 Patients who need to remain alert are taught to avoid which drug due to its antimuscarinic effects? 1. Levothyroxine 2. Prilosec 3. Dulcolax 4. Diphenhydramine - Correct Answers: 4 Anticholinesterase inhibitors are used to treat: 1. Peptic ulcer disease 2. Myasthenia gravis 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 2 Which of the following drugs used to treat Alzheimer's disease is not an anticholinergic? 1. Donepezil 2. Memantine 3. Rivastigmine 4. Galantamine - Correct Answers: 2 Taking which drug with food maximizes it bioavailability? 1. Donepezil 2. Galantamine 3. Rivastigmine 4. Memantine - Correct Answers: 3 Which of the following drugs should be used only when clearly needed in pregnant and breastfeeding women? 1. Memantine 2. Pyridostigmine 3. Galantamine 4. Rivastigmine - Correct Answers: 2 There is a narrow margin between first appearance of adverse reaction to AChE inhibitors and serious toxic effects. Adverse reactions that require immediate action include: 1. Dizziness and headache 2. Nausea 3. Decreased salivation 4. Fasciculations of voluntary muscles - Correct Answers: 4 Adherence is improved when a drug can be given once daily. Which of the following drugs can be given once daily? 1. Tacrine 2. Donepezil 3. Memantine 4. Pyridostigmine - Correct Answers: 2 Nicotine has a variety of effects on nicotinic receptors throughout the body. Which of the following is NOT an effect of nicotine? 1. Vasodilation and decreased heart rate 2. Increased secretion of gastric acid and motility of the GI smooth muscle 3. Release of dopamine at the pleasure center 4. Stimulation of the locus coeruleus - Correct Answers: 1 Nicotine gum products are: 1. Chewed to release the nicotine and then swallowed for a systemic effect 2. "Parked" in the buccal area of the mouth to produce a constant amount of nicotine release 3. Bound to exchange resins so the nicotine is only released during chewing 4. Approximately the same in nicotine content as smoking two cigarettes - Correct Answers: 3 Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT): 1. Is widely distributed in the body only when the gum products are used 2. Does not cross the placenta and so is safe for pregnant women 3. Delays healing of esophagitis and peptic ulcers 4. Has no drug interactions when a transdermal patch is used - Correct Answers: 3 Success rates for smoking cessation using NRT: 1. Are about the same regardless of the method chosen 2. Vary from 40% to 50% at 12 months 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 - Correct Answers: 2 Cholinergic blockers are used to: 1. Counteract the extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) effects of phenothiazines 2. Control tremors and relax smooth muscle in Parkinson's disease 3. Inhibit the muscarinic action of ACh on bladder muscle 4. All of the above - Correct Answers: 4 Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is true about these interactions? 1. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract long enough to produce an action. 2. Additive antimuscarinic effects may occur with antihistamines. 3. Cholinergic blockers may decrease the sedative effects of hypnotics. 4. Cholinergic blockers are contraindicated with antipsychotics. - Correct Answers: 1 Scopolamine can be used to prevent the nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness. The patient is taught to: 1. Apply the transdermal disk at least