FIREFIGHTER 2 FINAL EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS AND A
PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM 400
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
What does an initial radio report provide? (116-117)
A. Transfer of command
B. Description of conditions as they appear
C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm
D. Operations from a legal and statistical standpoint - ANSWER: b
Which of the following should be in an arrival report? (117)
A. Number of victims
B. Discussion of command
C. Correct address of the incident
D. Emergency medical services on scene - ANSWER: c
Which of the following provides the telecommunications center with a continuous
record of actions at scene? (117-118)
A. Arrival report
B. Progress report
C. Initial radio report
D. Personal accountability report - ANSWER: c
What task may a telecommunications center be assigned during a progress report?
(118)
A. Requesting multiple or special alarms
B. Providing periodic time transmissions
C. Warning personnel of impending hazard on scene
D. Giving command in the absence of command staff - ANSWER: b
___ must follow a broadcast process that begins with a clear statement that alerts all
listeners. (119)
A. Arrival reports
B. Emergency radio traffic
C. Tactical progress reports
D. Additional resource requests - ANSWER: b
Which of the following would be a reason to request a personnel accountability
report (PAR)? (121)
A. The primary search is started.
B. A secondary search is completed.
C. An emergency evacuation is ordered.
D. The public information officer requests it. - ANSWER: c
,Which of the following BEST explains why information is gathered for a postincident
report? (122)
A. Reviewing tactical operations errors
B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries
C. Suggesting locations that need preincident surveys
D. Providing information to media before the official report - ANSWER: b
What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122)
A. Informs other responding units of current conditions
B. Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene
C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports
D. Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene -
ANSWER: c
What general information is in a postincident report? (122-123)
A. Witness names
B. Dispatch transmissions
C. Estimated cost of damage
D. Number of people interviewed - ANSWER: c
Knowing types of doors and door hardware can help firefighters: (190)
A. judge roof safety.
B. predict fire development.
C. select correct forcible entry tools.
D. select the right type of vertical tactical ventilation. - ANSWER: c
Which of the following BEST describes a primary dangerous building condition? (191)
A. Conditions that suppress fire
B. Conditions that allow tactical ventilation
C. Conditions that contribute to fire spread
D. Conditions that permit occupants to safely escape - ANSWER: c
Fuel loading is defined as the maximum heat produced if: (191)
A. no combustible materials are present.
B. all combustible materials in a given area burn.
C. nothing but combustible materials are present.
D. none of the combustible materials in a given area burn. - ANSWER: b
What is the most effective defense against heavy content fuel loading? (191-192)
A. Proper inspection and code enforcement
B. Restricting the types of combustible materials used
C. Adopting local standards that limit multistory buildings
D. Not allowing the use of combustible materials in construction - ANSWER: a
Vertical tactical ventilation can be defined as channeling smoke from the: (192)
A. lowest point in a building.
,B. highest point in a building.
C. point in a building that has the most windows.
D. point in a building that has the least windows. - ANSWER: b
The critical temperature for steel trusses is: (193)
A. 300°F (149°C).
B. 500°F (260°C).
C. 900°F (482°C).
D. 1,000°F (538°C) - ANSWER: d
Which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited interior
support is needed? (193)
A. Lantern
B. Mansard
C. Sawtooth
D. Bowstring truss - ANSWER: d
Which of the following BEST describes a possible construction hazard? (194)
A. Fire detection systems may be damaged.
B. Furnishings may contribute to fire spread.
C. Building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in
place.
D. Danger increases because occupants and belongings remain in one part of the
building while work goes on in the other. - ANSWER: c
Renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all: (195)
A. renovations hazards.
B. structural collapse factors.
C. building construction hazards.
D. impossible to estimate the impact of on a structure. - ANSWER: b
Which of the following BEST describes when structural collapse may occur? (197)
A. It can occur when all the factors are met.
B. It can only occur before fire suppression.
C. It can only occur during fire suppression.
D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished. - ANSWER: d
In what fire stage is structural collapse very likely? (197)
A. Incipient
B. Growth
C. Fully developed
D. Decay - ANSWER: d
How much is added to the weight of floors for every U.S. gallon (SI liter) used during
suppression? (198)
A. 5.22 pounds (2.37 kilograms)
B. 6.25 pounds (2.83 kilograms)
, C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kilograms)
D. 10.22 pounds (4.63 kilograms) - ANSWER: c
When a collapse is imminent, personnel ___ in the collapse zone. (199)
A. should never work
B. are allowed to work
C. may stay for twenty minutes
D. may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream - ANSWER: d
Which of the following BEST describes where the collapse zone is established? (199)
A. Adjacent to any exposed interior walls
B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls
C. Near any area that is 10 feet (3.04 m) from exterior walls
D. Near any area that is 20 feet (6.09 m) from exterior walls - ANSWER: b
For which construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern?
(199)
A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type V - ANSWER: a
When exposed to temperatures above ___ unprotected steel will expand and twist.
(199)
A. 300°F (149°C)
B. 500°F (260°C)
C. 900°F (482°C)
D. 1,000°F (538°C) - ANSWER: d
A collapse zone for a Type IV structure should be established when: (200)
A. its veneer begins to curtain collapse.
B. walls begin to shift because the building is twisting.
C. the structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time.
D. it has been determined that glass shards will be directed at on-scene personnel. -
ANSWER: c
A collapse zone must be established when: (201)
A. a defensive strategy has been adopted.
B. there is no evidence of structural instability.
C. mortar between masonry shows no sign of deterioration.
D. furnishings and finishes do not overwhelm fire suppression systems. - ANSWER: a
Which must be considered when deciding the size of a collapse zone? (201)
A. Local adopted building codes
B. Number of personnel on-scene
C. Type of building construction and safest location for personnel
D. Number of personnel on-scene and type of building construction - ANSWER: c
PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM 400
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
What does an initial radio report provide? (116-117)
A. Transfer of command
B. Description of conditions as they appear
C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm
D. Operations from a legal and statistical standpoint - ANSWER: b
Which of the following should be in an arrival report? (117)
A. Number of victims
B. Discussion of command
C. Correct address of the incident
D. Emergency medical services on scene - ANSWER: c
Which of the following provides the telecommunications center with a continuous
record of actions at scene? (117-118)
A. Arrival report
B. Progress report
C. Initial radio report
D. Personal accountability report - ANSWER: c
What task may a telecommunications center be assigned during a progress report?
(118)
A. Requesting multiple or special alarms
B. Providing periodic time transmissions
C. Warning personnel of impending hazard on scene
D. Giving command in the absence of command staff - ANSWER: b
___ must follow a broadcast process that begins with a clear statement that alerts all
listeners. (119)
A. Arrival reports
B. Emergency radio traffic
C. Tactical progress reports
D. Additional resource requests - ANSWER: b
Which of the following would be a reason to request a personnel accountability
report (PAR)? (121)
A. The primary search is started.
B. A secondary search is completed.
C. An emergency evacuation is ordered.
D. The public information officer requests it. - ANSWER: c
,Which of the following BEST explains why information is gathered for a postincident
report? (122)
A. Reviewing tactical operations errors
B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries
C. Suggesting locations that need preincident surveys
D. Providing information to media before the official report - ANSWER: b
What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122)
A. Informs other responding units of current conditions
B. Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene
C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports
D. Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene -
ANSWER: c
What general information is in a postincident report? (122-123)
A. Witness names
B. Dispatch transmissions
C. Estimated cost of damage
D. Number of people interviewed - ANSWER: c
Knowing types of doors and door hardware can help firefighters: (190)
A. judge roof safety.
B. predict fire development.
C. select correct forcible entry tools.
D. select the right type of vertical tactical ventilation. - ANSWER: c
Which of the following BEST describes a primary dangerous building condition? (191)
A. Conditions that suppress fire
B. Conditions that allow tactical ventilation
C. Conditions that contribute to fire spread
D. Conditions that permit occupants to safely escape - ANSWER: c
Fuel loading is defined as the maximum heat produced if: (191)
A. no combustible materials are present.
B. all combustible materials in a given area burn.
C. nothing but combustible materials are present.
D. none of the combustible materials in a given area burn. - ANSWER: b
What is the most effective defense against heavy content fuel loading? (191-192)
A. Proper inspection and code enforcement
B. Restricting the types of combustible materials used
C. Adopting local standards that limit multistory buildings
D. Not allowing the use of combustible materials in construction - ANSWER: a
Vertical tactical ventilation can be defined as channeling smoke from the: (192)
A. lowest point in a building.
,B. highest point in a building.
C. point in a building that has the most windows.
D. point in a building that has the least windows. - ANSWER: b
The critical temperature for steel trusses is: (193)
A. 300°F (149°C).
B. 500°F (260°C).
C. 900°F (482°C).
D. 1,000°F (538°C) - ANSWER: d
Which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited interior
support is needed? (193)
A. Lantern
B. Mansard
C. Sawtooth
D. Bowstring truss - ANSWER: d
Which of the following BEST describes a possible construction hazard? (194)
A. Fire detection systems may be damaged.
B. Furnishings may contribute to fire spread.
C. Building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in
place.
D. Danger increases because occupants and belongings remain in one part of the
building while work goes on in the other. - ANSWER: c
Renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all: (195)
A. renovations hazards.
B. structural collapse factors.
C. building construction hazards.
D. impossible to estimate the impact of on a structure. - ANSWER: b
Which of the following BEST describes when structural collapse may occur? (197)
A. It can occur when all the factors are met.
B. It can only occur before fire suppression.
C. It can only occur during fire suppression.
D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished. - ANSWER: d
In what fire stage is structural collapse very likely? (197)
A. Incipient
B. Growth
C. Fully developed
D. Decay - ANSWER: d
How much is added to the weight of floors for every U.S. gallon (SI liter) used during
suppression? (198)
A. 5.22 pounds (2.37 kilograms)
B. 6.25 pounds (2.83 kilograms)
, C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kilograms)
D. 10.22 pounds (4.63 kilograms) - ANSWER: c
When a collapse is imminent, personnel ___ in the collapse zone. (199)
A. should never work
B. are allowed to work
C. may stay for twenty minutes
D. may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream - ANSWER: d
Which of the following BEST describes where the collapse zone is established? (199)
A. Adjacent to any exposed interior walls
B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls
C. Near any area that is 10 feet (3.04 m) from exterior walls
D. Near any area that is 20 feet (6.09 m) from exterior walls - ANSWER: b
For which construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern?
(199)
A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type V - ANSWER: a
When exposed to temperatures above ___ unprotected steel will expand and twist.
(199)
A. 300°F (149°C)
B. 500°F (260°C)
C. 900°F (482°C)
D. 1,000°F (538°C) - ANSWER: d
A collapse zone for a Type IV structure should be established when: (200)
A. its veneer begins to curtain collapse.
B. walls begin to shift because the building is twisting.
C. the structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time.
D. it has been determined that glass shards will be directed at on-scene personnel. -
ANSWER: c
A collapse zone must be established when: (201)
A. a defensive strategy has been adopted.
B. there is no evidence of structural instability.
C. mortar between masonry shows no sign of deterioration.
D. furnishings and finishes do not overwhelm fire suppression systems. - ANSWER: a
Which must be considered when deciding the size of a collapse zone? (201)
A. Local adopted building codes
B. Number of personnel on-scene
C. Type of building construction and safest location for personnel
D. Number of personnel on-scene and type of building construction - ANSWER: c
