AAPD Remembered
5 mL OTC fluoridated mouthrinse has ___ mg Fluoride. - Correct Answer 1
A blow out fracture can be diagnosed via what type of radiographic technique? What would the findings be? - Correct
Answer Water's view; cloudy antrum, enopthalmos (unequal size of eyes), periorbital edema/hematoma
A chancre resembles what? - Correct Answer a common ulceration
A child collapses and upon exam there is a definite pulse found immediately but no respiration noted. What should
the HCP do next? - Correct Answer give 1 breath every 3 seconds, recheck pulse every 2 minutes, add
compressions if heartrate falls below 60/min
A long dental needle is what length? - Correct Answer 32 mm
A major difference between Apert and Crouzon syndrome is ______? - Correct Answer Crouzon syndrome has no
hand anomalies while Apert has marked syndactyly
A major difference in the growth progression of a congenital vascular malformation and a hemangioma is _____? -
Correct Answer vascular malformations tend to grow with the child while hemangiomas tend to regress with age
A major distinction between aggressive and typical chronic periodontitis is : - Correct Answer aggressive periodontitis
typically is found in patients with good OH/little plaque
A panoramic radiograph has an effective dose of radiation approximately equal to ____ intraoral images. - Correct
Answer 4
A patient experiences syncope during treatment. What level glucose would cause you to suspect hypoglycemia on a
rapid glucose test? - Correct Answer <50 mg/100 mL
A patient has a documented allergy to sodium bisulfite. What type of anesthetic should be used? - Correct Answer
one without vasoconstrictor
A patient has intruded #E and the root is displced toward the buccal plate. How long should you allow the tooth to
reposition spontaneously? - Correct Answer 6 months
A patient will exhibit signs and symptoms of autism before what age? - Correct Answer 3
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? - Correct Answer age 2-5
A relatively high proportion of asthma patients are allergic to what OTC medications? - Correct Answer 4% of
asthmatics are allergic to aspirin and other NSAIDs, recommend acetaminophen
A short dental needle is what length? - Correct Answer 20 mm
A trauma patient's best motor response allows them to extend to pain. What score would they receive for that finding
on the Glasgow coma scale? - Correct Answer 2
A trauma patient's best motor response allows them to obey verbal commands. What score would they receive for
that finding on the Glasgow coma scale? - Correct Answer 6
A trauma patient's best verbal response causes them to answer in a confused fashion. What score would they
receive on the Glasgow coma scale for that finding? - Correct Answer 4
A trauma patient's best verbal response causes them to answer with inappropriate words. What score would they
receive on the Glasgow coma scale for that finding? - Correct Answer 3
A typical child age 3 years old needs how many calories per day? - Correct Answer 1000 to 1400
,According to AAPD guidelines, what additional measures should be provided for a patient with a platelet count
between 40,000/mm3 and 75,000/mm3? - Correct Answer platelet transfusions may be considered pre-and 24 hours
post-operatively
According to AAPD recommendations, when can an amalgam or resin restoration be used to cover a tooth which has
been treated with pulp therapy? - Correct Answer conservative pulpal access, sound lateral walls, less than 2 years
to exfoliation
According to the AAPD what age should children be weaned from the bottle? - Correct Answer 12-18 mos
Adrenal suppression usually does not occur in children who have been taking less than what dose of inhaled
beclomethasone? - Correct Answer 700 mcg daily inhalded beclomethasone or equivalent
After avulsion, what are contraindications to replanting a permanent tooth? - Correct Answer when considerable
alveolar growth has to take place because of the child's stage of dental development; when the child has a
compromising medical condition (immunocompromised, severe congenital cardiac anomalies, severe uncontrolled
seizure disorder, severe mental disability, severe uncontrolled diabetes); compromised integrity of the avulsed tooth
or supporting tissues
An abnormality on what chromosome leads to Prader-Willi syndrome? - Correct Answer chromosome 15
An avulsed permanent tooth has been stored in saliva for 1 hour. What should occur before re-implantation? - Correct
Answer change transport media to HBSS if available
An avulsed permanent tooth with a closed apex has been stored dry for 5 hours. What is the ideal treatment? -
Correct Answer Soak in NaOH or citric acid for 3 min, rinse, or debride and remove PDL gently with scaler, place in
NaF for 20 min, re-implant, verify position with radiograph, place flexible splint, prescribe CHX and systemic
antibiotics, follow up in 7-10 days, monitor for apexification/RCT
An avulsed permanent tooth with a closed apex has been stored in HBSS for 5 hours. What needs to be done to the
tooth before re-implantation? - Correct Answer N/A, no soaking/changing of transport medium necessary
An avulsed permanent tooth with an open apex has been stored in HBSS for 2 hours. What should occur ideally
before re-implantation? - Correct Answer soak in 1% doxycycline for 5 minutes
An oral effect of beta-adrenergic inhaler use is: - Correct Answer decreased salivary flow rates
An oral electrical burn typically occurs at a temperature of at least _______ degrees C. - Correct Answer 2000
An ultrashort dental needle is what length? - Correct Answer 10 mm
Ankyloglossia is thought to be associated with what malocclusion? - Correct Answer class III
Any bruise in a child of what age is automatic concern for child abuse? - Correct Answer under age 4 mos
Aphthous ulcers are caused by what? - Correct Answer T-cell mediated immunologic reaction
Appropriate growth modification of patient with true class III skeletal relationship includes what treatments? - Correct
Answer Reverse pull headgear/facemask or chin cup
Approximately half of young children will discontinue a non-nutritive sucking habit spontaneously at what age? -
Correct Answer 24-28 months
Approximately how much sooner does a female reach skeletal maturity than a male? - Correct Answer 2 years
Are class II division 1 patients typically brachyfacial or dolichofacial? - Correct Answer dolichofacial
Are functional appliances indicated in patients with a retrusive mandible or protrusive maxilla? - Correct Answer
retrusive mandible
Are impacted maxillary permanent canines more frequently found in males or females? - Correct Answer females (3x)
,Are males or females more likely to experience congenitally missing teeth? - Correct Answer equal distribution
Are mucoceles more commonly found at the midline or lateral to the midline of the lip? - Correct Answer lateral to the
midline
Are odontomas found more commonly in the maxilla or the mandible? - Correct Answer maxilla
Are PDL injections indicated in primary teeth? - Correct Answer No, enamel hypoplasia of the permanent tooth
developing is a side effect of PDL injection in primary teeth
Are supernumerary teeth more common in males or females? - Correct Answer males (2x)
Are the lesions of cherubism unilocular or multilocular? - Correct Answer multilocular
At what age do MD patients usually begin experiencing symptoms? - Correct Answer Between age 2 and 6
At what age does risk of radiation-induced tumorigenesis to the thyroid essentially disappear? - Correct Answer 20
At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the permanent 2nd molar begin
initiation? - Correct Answer 1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
At what age is the systemic benefit of fluoride not considered necessary. - Correct Answer past age 16
At what ANC value should routine dental treatment be deferred? - Correct Answer under 1000 per mm3
At what angle should bitewing radiographs be taken? - Correct Answer positive 8-10 degrees
At what blood sugar level are patients typically diagnosed with diabetes? - Correct Answer random blood glucose
conc of 200mg/dl+ or fasting of 126 mg/dl+
At what level of water fluoridation is there a 10% chance of fluorosis? 90% chance? - Correct Answer a) 2 ppm b) 6
ppm
At what platelet cound should routine dental care be avoided and a physician consulted? - Correct Answer under
75000 per mm3 (guidelines say under 40,000)
At what point does dietary modification to manage ESRD fail to halt progression of renal damage? - Correct Answer
when GFR falls to less than 10 mL/min/1.73 m3 of body surface area (normal is 100-150 mL/min) and BUN rises to
100-150mg% (normal is 10-20 mg%)
At what point in development does gingivitis peak? - Correct Answer adolescence (puberty)
At what point in fetal development do neural tube defects tend to occur? - Correct Answer 3-4 weeks in utero
At what point in fetal development does the calcification of primary teeth begin? - Correct Answer 4th month
At what point in permanent tooth development should supernumerary teeth be removed? - Correct Answer 1/2 to 2/3
root development of adjacent permanent teeth (guidelines say 2/3 to 3/4)
At what time period are natural levels of cortisol the highest? - Correct Answer early in the morning
Atrophic candidiasis = ? - Correct Answer erythematous
Bitewings should be performed on a high risk child in the permanent dentition at what interval? - Correct Answer 6-18
months
Bitewings should be performed on a high risk child in the primary dentition at what interval? - Correct Answer 6-12
months
BP and HR should be within ____% of preanesthetic level before discharge following GA? - Correct Answer 0.2
, By what age are high risk dietary practices established? - Correct Answer 12 mos
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor is also known as ______? - Correct Answer Pindborg tumor
Calcifying odontogenic cyst is also known as ______. - Correct Answer Gorlin cyst
Can a CRNA or anesthesia assistant perform deep sedation or general anesthesia in your office? - Correct Answer
only if the dentist has completed training in deep sedation/general anesthesia and be licensed or permitted by state
law
Cat-scratch fever is caused by what bacteria? - Correct Answer Bartonella henselae
CATCH-22 stands for ___. - Correct Answer Cardiac defects, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate,
hypoparathyroidism, 22q11.2 deletion
CBCT typically delivers a higher dose of radiation to a patient compared to a typical panoramic radiograph by a factor
of _____. - Correct Answer 5 to 16
CHARGE stands for ___. - Correct Answer coloboma, heart anomalies, atresia of the chonae, retardation of
growth/development, genitourinary anomalies, ear microtia/deformations
Chickenpox is caused by what pathogen? - Correct Answer varicella-zoster (HHV-3)
Children with what condition are contraindicated from receiving diazepam as an oral conscious sedation medication?
- Correct Answer narrow angle glaucoma
Chondroectodermal dysplasia is also known as ______ ? - Correct Answer Ellis-van Creveld syndrome
Common sites to find dentigerous cysts include ______. - Correct Answer Mandibular molar and maxillary canine
Complications of a lymphangioma include: - Correct Answer compromised airway, does not regress and may require
surgery
Complications of chicken pox include ____. - Correct Answer secondary bacterial infection; pneumonia, encephalitis,
thrombocytopenia, glomerulonephritis
Condensing osteitis is also known as _______. - Correct Answer focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
Condyloma acuminatum is caused by what pathogens? - Correct Answer HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
Congenital hypothyroidism is also known as _____? - Correct Answer cretinism
Crowded primary teeth predicts that ____% of children will have incisor crowding in the mixed dentition. - Correct
Answer 1
Cushing disease is caused by _____. - Correct Answer excessive ACTH secretion by tumors in pituitary gland
Cystic fibrosis results in what color intrinsic stain? - Correct Answer yellowish-gray to dark brown
DDAVP (vasopressin) is NOT effective in which types of patients? - Correct Answer severe hemophilia or von
Willebrand's patients; and hemophilia B
Define 'adolescent dentition'. - Correct Answer All primary teeth have exfoliated, permanent second molars have
erupted or are erupting, and third molars are not erupted
Define 'deep sedation'. - Correct Answer Drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be
easily aroused but respond purposefully after repeated verbal or painful stimulation, the ability to maintain ventilatory
function may be impaired
Define 'minimal sedation'. - Correct Answer drug-induced state during which patients respond normally to verbal
commands, cognitive function and coordinatrion may be impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are
unaffected
5 mL OTC fluoridated mouthrinse has ___ mg Fluoride. - Correct Answer 1
A blow out fracture can be diagnosed via what type of radiographic technique? What would the findings be? - Correct
Answer Water's view; cloudy antrum, enopthalmos (unequal size of eyes), periorbital edema/hematoma
A chancre resembles what? - Correct Answer a common ulceration
A child collapses and upon exam there is a definite pulse found immediately but no respiration noted. What should
the HCP do next? - Correct Answer give 1 breath every 3 seconds, recheck pulse every 2 minutes, add
compressions if heartrate falls below 60/min
A long dental needle is what length? - Correct Answer 32 mm
A major difference between Apert and Crouzon syndrome is ______? - Correct Answer Crouzon syndrome has no
hand anomalies while Apert has marked syndactyly
A major difference in the growth progression of a congenital vascular malformation and a hemangioma is _____? -
Correct Answer vascular malformations tend to grow with the child while hemangiomas tend to regress with age
A major distinction between aggressive and typical chronic periodontitis is : - Correct Answer aggressive periodontitis
typically is found in patients with good OH/little plaque
A panoramic radiograph has an effective dose of radiation approximately equal to ____ intraoral images. - Correct
Answer 4
A patient experiences syncope during treatment. What level glucose would cause you to suspect hypoglycemia on a
rapid glucose test? - Correct Answer <50 mg/100 mL
A patient has a documented allergy to sodium bisulfite. What type of anesthetic should be used? - Correct Answer
one without vasoconstrictor
A patient has intruded #E and the root is displced toward the buccal plate. How long should you allow the tooth to
reposition spontaneously? - Correct Answer 6 months
A patient will exhibit signs and symptoms of autism before what age? - Correct Answer 3
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? - Correct Answer age 2-5
A relatively high proportion of asthma patients are allergic to what OTC medications? - Correct Answer 4% of
asthmatics are allergic to aspirin and other NSAIDs, recommend acetaminophen
A short dental needle is what length? - Correct Answer 20 mm
A trauma patient's best motor response allows them to extend to pain. What score would they receive for that finding
on the Glasgow coma scale? - Correct Answer 2
A trauma patient's best motor response allows them to obey verbal commands. What score would they receive for
that finding on the Glasgow coma scale? - Correct Answer 6
A trauma patient's best verbal response causes them to answer in a confused fashion. What score would they
receive on the Glasgow coma scale for that finding? - Correct Answer 4
A trauma patient's best verbal response causes them to answer with inappropriate words. What score would they
receive on the Glasgow coma scale for that finding? - Correct Answer 3
A typical child age 3 years old needs how many calories per day? - Correct Answer 1000 to 1400
,According to AAPD guidelines, what additional measures should be provided for a patient with a platelet count
between 40,000/mm3 and 75,000/mm3? - Correct Answer platelet transfusions may be considered pre-and 24 hours
post-operatively
According to AAPD recommendations, when can an amalgam or resin restoration be used to cover a tooth which has
been treated with pulp therapy? - Correct Answer conservative pulpal access, sound lateral walls, less than 2 years
to exfoliation
According to the AAPD what age should children be weaned from the bottle? - Correct Answer 12-18 mos
Adrenal suppression usually does not occur in children who have been taking less than what dose of inhaled
beclomethasone? - Correct Answer 700 mcg daily inhalded beclomethasone or equivalent
After avulsion, what are contraindications to replanting a permanent tooth? - Correct Answer when considerable
alveolar growth has to take place because of the child's stage of dental development; when the child has a
compromising medical condition (immunocompromised, severe congenital cardiac anomalies, severe uncontrolled
seizure disorder, severe mental disability, severe uncontrolled diabetes); compromised integrity of the avulsed tooth
or supporting tissues
An abnormality on what chromosome leads to Prader-Willi syndrome? - Correct Answer chromosome 15
An avulsed permanent tooth has been stored in saliva for 1 hour. What should occur before re-implantation? - Correct
Answer change transport media to HBSS if available
An avulsed permanent tooth with a closed apex has been stored dry for 5 hours. What is the ideal treatment? -
Correct Answer Soak in NaOH or citric acid for 3 min, rinse, or debride and remove PDL gently with scaler, place in
NaF for 20 min, re-implant, verify position with radiograph, place flexible splint, prescribe CHX and systemic
antibiotics, follow up in 7-10 days, monitor for apexification/RCT
An avulsed permanent tooth with a closed apex has been stored in HBSS for 5 hours. What needs to be done to the
tooth before re-implantation? - Correct Answer N/A, no soaking/changing of transport medium necessary
An avulsed permanent tooth with an open apex has been stored in HBSS for 2 hours. What should occur ideally
before re-implantation? - Correct Answer soak in 1% doxycycline for 5 minutes
An oral effect of beta-adrenergic inhaler use is: - Correct Answer decreased salivary flow rates
An oral electrical burn typically occurs at a temperature of at least _______ degrees C. - Correct Answer 2000
An ultrashort dental needle is what length? - Correct Answer 10 mm
Ankyloglossia is thought to be associated with what malocclusion? - Correct Answer class III
Any bruise in a child of what age is automatic concern for child abuse? - Correct Answer under age 4 mos
Aphthous ulcers are caused by what? - Correct Answer T-cell mediated immunologic reaction
Appropriate growth modification of patient with true class III skeletal relationship includes what treatments? - Correct
Answer Reverse pull headgear/facemask or chin cup
Approximately half of young children will discontinue a non-nutritive sucking habit spontaneously at what age? -
Correct Answer 24-28 months
Approximately how much sooner does a female reach skeletal maturity than a male? - Correct Answer 2 years
Are class II division 1 patients typically brachyfacial or dolichofacial? - Correct Answer dolichofacial
Are functional appliances indicated in patients with a retrusive mandible or protrusive maxilla? - Correct Answer
retrusive mandible
Are impacted maxillary permanent canines more frequently found in males or females? - Correct Answer females (3x)
,Are males or females more likely to experience congenitally missing teeth? - Correct Answer equal distribution
Are mucoceles more commonly found at the midline or lateral to the midline of the lip? - Correct Answer lateral to the
midline
Are odontomas found more commonly in the maxilla or the mandible? - Correct Answer maxilla
Are PDL injections indicated in primary teeth? - Correct Answer No, enamel hypoplasia of the permanent tooth
developing is a side effect of PDL injection in primary teeth
Are supernumerary teeth more common in males or females? - Correct Answer males (2x)
Are the lesions of cherubism unilocular or multilocular? - Correct Answer multilocular
At what age do MD patients usually begin experiencing symptoms? - Correct Answer Between age 2 and 6
At what age does risk of radiation-induced tumorigenesis to the thyroid essentially disappear? - Correct Answer 20
At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the permanent 2nd molar begin
initiation? - Correct Answer 1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
At what age is the systemic benefit of fluoride not considered necessary. - Correct Answer past age 16
At what ANC value should routine dental treatment be deferred? - Correct Answer under 1000 per mm3
At what angle should bitewing radiographs be taken? - Correct Answer positive 8-10 degrees
At what blood sugar level are patients typically diagnosed with diabetes? - Correct Answer random blood glucose
conc of 200mg/dl+ or fasting of 126 mg/dl+
At what level of water fluoridation is there a 10% chance of fluorosis? 90% chance? - Correct Answer a) 2 ppm b) 6
ppm
At what platelet cound should routine dental care be avoided and a physician consulted? - Correct Answer under
75000 per mm3 (guidelines say under 40,000)
At what point does dietary modification to manage ESRD fail to halt progression of renal damage? - Correct Answer
when GFR falls to less than 10 mL/min/1.73 m3 of body surface area (normal is 100-150 mL/min) and BUN rises to
100-150mg% (normal is 10-20 mg%)
At what point in development does gingivitis peak? - Correct Answer adolescence (puberty)
At what point in fetal development do neural tube defects tend to occur? - Correct Answer 3-4 weeks in utero
At what point in fetal development does the calcification of primary teeth begin? - Correct Answer 4th month
At what point in permanent tooth development should supernumerary teeth be removed? - Correct Answer 1/2 to 2/3
root development of adjacent permanent teeth (guidelines say 2/3 to 3/4)
At what time period are natural levels of cortisol the highest? - Correct Answer early in the morning
Atrophic candidiasis = ? - Correct Answer erythematous
Bitewings should be performed on a high risk child in the permanent dentition at what interval? - Correct Answer 6-18
months
Bitewings should be performed on a high risk child in the primary dentition at what interval? - Correct Answer 6-12
months
BP and HR should be within ____% of preanesthetic level before discharge following GA? - Correct Answer 0.2
, By what age are high risk dietary practices established? - Correct Answer 12 mos
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor is also known as ______? - Correct Answer Pindborg tumor
Calcifying odontogenic cyst is also known as ______. - Correct Answer Gorlin cyst
Can a CRNA or anesthesia assistant perform deep sedation or general anesthesia in your office? - Correct Answer
only if the dentist has completed training in deep sedation/general anesthesia and be licensed or permitted by state
law
Cat-scratch fever is caused by what bacteria? - Correct Answer Bartonella henselae
CATCH-22 stands for ___. - Correct Answer Cardiac defects, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate,
hypoparathyroidism, 22q11.2 deletion
CBCT typically delivers a higher dose of radiation to a patient compared to a typical panoramic radiograph by a factor
of _____. - Correct Answer 5 to 16
CHARGE stands for ___. - Correct Answer coloboma, heart anomalies, atresia of the chonae, retardation of
growth/development, genitourinary anomalies, ear microtia/deformations
Chickenpox is caused by what pathogen? - Correct Answer varicella-zoster (HHV-3)
Children with what condition are contraindicated from receiving diazepam as an oral conscious sedation medication?
- Correct Answer narrow angle glaucoma
Chondroectodermal dysplasia is also known as ______ ? - Correct Answer Ellis-van Creveld syndrome
Common sites to find dentigerous cysts include ______. - Correct Answer Mandibular molar and maxillary canine
Complications of a lymphangioma include: - Correct Answer compromised airway, does not regress and may require
surgery
Complications of chicken pox include ____. - Correct Answer secondary bacterial infection; pneumonia, encephalitis,
thrombocytopenia, glomerulonephritis
Condensing osteitis is also known as _______. - Correct Answer focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
Condyloma acuminatum is caused by what pathogens? - Correct Answer HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
Congenital hypothyroidism is also known as _____? - Correct Answer cretinism
Crowded primary teeth predicts that ____% of children will have incisor crowding in the mixed dentition. - Correct
Answer 1
Cushing disease is caused by _____. - Correct Answer excessive ACTH secretion by tumors in pituitary gland
Cystic fibrosis results in what color intrinsic stain? - Correct Answer yellowish-gray to dark brown
DDAVP (vasopressin) is NOT effective in which types of patients? - Correct Answer severe hemophilia or von
Willebrand's patients; and hemophilia B
Define 'adolescent dentition'. - Correct Answer All primary teeth have exfoliated, permanent second molars have
erupted or are erupting, and third molars are not erupted
Define 'deep sedation'. - Correct Answer Drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be
easily aroused but respond purposefully after repeated verbal or painful stimulation, the ability to maintain ventilatory
function may be impaired
Define 'minimal sedation'. - Correct Answer drug-induced state during which patients respond normally to verbal
commands, cognitive function and coordinatrion may be impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are
unaffected
