WEST COAST EMT BLOCK EXAM

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. cerebrum. C. cerebral cortex. D. brain stem. - ANS~ D. brain stem. The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: Select one: A. cauda equina. B. foramen magnum. C. foramen lamina. D. vertebral foramen. - ANS~ B. foramen magnum. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: Select one: A. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. B. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours. - ANS~ C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms. The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure: A. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia. B. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours. C. typically does not improve, even after several minutes. D. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. - ANS~ D. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? A) brain tumor B) massive stroke C) poisoning D) head trauma - ANS~ C) poisoning Febrile seizures in a child: A. typically last less than 30 minutes. B. occur after a week of a febrile illness. C. are usually caused by viral meningitis. D. may indicate a serious underlying illness. - ANS~ D. may indicate a serious underlying illness. You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: Select one: A. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. B. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. C. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport. - ANS~ B. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: Select one: A. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward. B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. C. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech. D. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test. - ANS~ B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a: Select one: A. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet. B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. C. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. D. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up. - ANS~ B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Spleen B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Kidneys - ANS~ B. Spleen The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: Select one: A. accommodating a large amount of blood volume. B. removing sodium and water from the body. C. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. D. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. - ANS~ B. removing sodium and water from the body. The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: A. surface of the abdominal organs. B. lungs and chest cavity. C. walls of the abdominal cavity. D. retroperitoneal space. - ANS~ C. walls of the abdominal cavity. In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: A. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. B. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves. C. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen. D. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. - ANS~ D. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Select one: A. The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood B. Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants C. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating D. Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs - ANS~ C. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. C. can be reversed with prompt treatment. D. causes dehydration from excessive urination. - ANS~ B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. B. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. C. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. - ANS~ C. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. strangulated hernia. B. Aortic aneurysm. C. acute pancreatitis. D. kidney stones. - ANS~ B. Aortic aneurysm. The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock includes: a. administering high-flow oxygen. b. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. c. transporting the patient without delay. d. positioning the patient on his or her side. - ANS~ c. transporting the patient without delay. Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: A) attempting to eliminate acids from the blood. B) trying to generate energy by breathing deeply. C) severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2. D) compensating for decreased blood glucose levels. - ANS~ A) attempting to eliminate acids from the blood A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patients clinical presentation, you should suspect that she: A. is significantly hyperglycemic. B. has a urinary tract infection. C. has overdosed on her insulin. D. has a low BG level. - ANS~ A. is significantly hyperglycemic. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the MT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? Select one: A. Weight gain and edema B. Weight loss and polyuria C. Low blood glucose level D. Total lack of appetite - ANS~ B. Weight loss and polyuria When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions. B. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. C. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin. D. approximately how much water the patient drank that day. - ANS~ B. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: Select one: A. presence of a medical identification tag B. rate and depth of breathing. C. rate of the patient's pulse. D. patient's mental status. - ANS~ B. rate and depth of breathing. In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who: A. is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes. B. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes. C. has a BG level that is less than 100mg/dL. D. has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex. - ANS~ B. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes. To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? Select one: A. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex B. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting C. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin D. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor - ANS~ D. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): Select one: A. histamine. B. antibody. C. allergen. D. leukotriene. - ANS~ C. Allergen Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin B. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex C. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee D. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen - ANS~ A. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin What is a wheal? A. A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin B. An area of localized swelling involving the lips, tongue, and larynx C. Generalized itching or burning that appears as multiple, small, raised areas on the skin D. An exaggerated immune response to any substance - ANS~ A. A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin The stinger from a honeybee should be: Select one: A. left in place and covered. B. squeezed with tweezers and removed. C. scraped away from the skin. D. irrigated with copious amounts of water. - ANS~ C. scraped away from the skin. Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: Select one: A. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes. B. the body's immune system deactivates the bee's venom. C. the stinger should quickly be removed with tweezers. D. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes. - ANS~ D. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes. Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? Select one: A. Upper airway swelling B. Severe hypotension C. Diffuse urticaria D. Systemic vasodilation - ANS~ A. Upper airway swelling Epinephrine, whether made by the body or by a drug manufacturer, works rapidly to: Select one: A. raise the pulse rate and blood pressure. B. inhibit an allergic reaction. C. relieve bronchospasm. D. All of these answers are correct. - ANS~ D. All of these answers are correct. Epinephrine stimulates the response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: A. sympathetic B. parasympathetic C. cardiac D. respiratory - ANS~ A. Sympathetic Which of the following is an action of epinephrine on the human body? A. It causes the blood vessels to dilate. B. It causes bronchospasm. C. It causes hypotension. D. It causes increased cardiac contractility. - ANS~ D. It causes increased cardiac contractility. Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: Select one: A. a paramedic is present at the scene. B. the patient is anxious and tachycardic. C. wheezing and hypotension are present. D. the reaction produces severe urticaria. - ANS~ C. wheezing and hypotension are present. When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: Select one: A. 10 seconds. B. 3 seconds. C. 15 seconds. D. 8 seconds. - ANS~ B. 3 seconds. Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. reassess the patient's vital signs. B. record the time and dose given. C. properly dispose of the syringe. D. notify medical control of your action. - ANS~ C. properly dispose of the syringe. You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should: A. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens. B. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum. C. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine. D. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing. - ANS~ C. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine. Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. dizziness. B. drowsiness. C. tachycardia D. headache. - ANS~ A. dizziness After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-iniector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. B. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. D. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. - ANS~ C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is most important to: Select one: A. be alert for vomiting. B. document the intervention. C. call medical control. D. monitor the patient's blood pressure. - ANS~ A. be alert for vomiting. You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes: A. asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient. B. requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan). C. assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated. - ANS~ D. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated. You are dispatched to a local nursery for a 39-year-old female who is sick. When you arrive, you find the patient lying on the floor. She is semiconscious, has copious amounts of saliva coming from her mouth, and is incontinent of urine. You quickly feel her pulse and note that it is very slow. Immediate management for this patient should include: a) assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device. b) performing a rapid secondary assessment. c) requesting a paramedic to give her atropine. d) thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx. - ANS~ d) thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx. Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: A. Dimly lit environment B. Limited physical contact C. Elevated blood glucose D. Alcohol withdrawal - ANS~ D. Alcohol withdrawal A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a: Select one: A. traumatic brain injury B. functional disorder C. drug and alcohol abuse D. seizure - ANS~ B. functional disorder Depression and schizophrenia are examples of A. functional disorders. B. altered mental status. C. behavioral emergencies. D. organic brain syndrome. - ANS~ A. functional disorders. The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: Select one: A. depression. B. drug abuse. C. advanced age. D. a chronic illness. - ANS~ A. depression. Reflective listening, an assessment technique used when caring for patients with an emotional crisis, involves: A. asking the patient to repeat his or her statements. B. simply listening to the patient, without speaking. C. asking the patient to repeat everything that you say. D. repeating, in question form, what the patient tells you. - ANS~ D. repeating, in question form, what the patient tells you. A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: Select one: A. active listening. B. passive listening. C. reflective listening. D. intuitive listening. - ANS~ C. reflective listening. Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? Select one: A. Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field. B. The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. C. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determIned by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations. D. It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained. - ANS~ C. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determIned by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations. The EMT is caring for a patient who has a problem with the autonomic component of his nervous system. Which sign or symptom would most likely be caused by this condition? A) Inability to swallow B) Slowing of the heart rate C) Inability to move facial muscles D) Trouble remembering his name - ANS~ B) Slowing of the heart rate Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: A. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. B. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow. C. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalanceem or disturbance in the brain. D. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. - ANS~ A. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. Which if the following conditions or factors would be the LEAST likely to result in a change in behavior? A. Low blood glucose levels B. Anti hypertensive medications C. Exposure to excess heat or cold D. Inadequate blood flow to the brain - ANS~ B. Anti hypertensive medications Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. vagina. B. uterus. C. cervix. D. fallopian tube. - ANS~ D. fallopian tube. The onset of menstruation usually occurs in women who are: A. between 25 and 28 years of age. B. between 8 and 10 years of age. C. between 11 and 16 years of age. D. between 18 and 23 years of age. - ANS~ C. between 11 and 16 years of age. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: A. ovaries. B. uterus. C. urinary bladder D. fallopian tubes - ANS~ C. urinary bladder Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? A. Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. Upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding C. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. Pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness - ANS~ C. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: a. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. b. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. c. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes. d. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. - ANS~ b. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? Select one: a. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever b. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms. c. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women. d. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months of being infected. - ANS~ c. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women. When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: A. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. B. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. C. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes. D. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. - ANS~ D. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I can't remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: A. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. B. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say. C. the traumatic experience has created a mental block. D. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. - ANS~ D. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. B. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses. C. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine. D. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. - ANS~ D. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: A. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. B. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. C. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. D. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. - ANS~ B. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. has formed a general impression of the patient. B. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. C. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. D. has gathered patient history information. - ANS~ D. has gathered patient history information. If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT must assume that she: A. is pregnant. B. has an infection. C. is in shock. D. has an ectopic pregnancy. - ANS~ C. is in shock. When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. determine the underlying cause of her problem. B. ask questions related to her gynecologic history. C. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. D. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay. - ANS~ D. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay. Abruptio placenta occurs when: Select one: a. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. b. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. c. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening. d. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. - ANS~ a. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency? a. More than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery b. Significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta c. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby d. Failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes - ANS~ c. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if: Select one: A. positive-pressure ventilations are indicated. B. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid. C. the newborn presents with labored breathing. D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min. - ANS~ D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min. In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa: Select one: A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding. B. may present without significant abdominal pain. C. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma. D. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain. - ANS~ B. may present without significant abdominal pain. Which of the following statements is NOT true? Select one: A. Gestational diabetes will clear up in most women after delivery. B. The leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy. C. As pregnancy progresses, the uterus enlarges and rises out of the pelvis. D. Some cultures may not permit male EMTs to examine a female patient. - ANS~ B. The leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy. You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should: A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance. B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. C. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm. D. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed. - ANS~ A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? A. pulse B. activity C. grimace D. body size - ANS~ D. body size What would the Apgar score be for a newborn whose body is pink but whose hands and feet are cyanotic, has a pulse rate of 98 bpm, cries but does not recoil from stimulus, resists attempts to straighten hips and knees, and has slow respirations? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 - ANS~ B. 6 You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is: Select one: A. 7 B. 6 C. 9 D. 8 - ANS~ D. 8 Determine the Apgar score in the following scenario: You arrive at the scene of a home delivery. Upon entering the scene, the father appears upset and hands you a limp baby. The child has a weak cry, is completely cyanotic, and has a pulse of 70 beats/min. Respirations are slow. Select one: A. 3 B. 9 C. 2 D. 7 - ANS~ A. 3 The 1-minute Apgar score of a newborn reveals that the baby has a heart rate of 90 beats/min, a pink body but blue hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The baby cries when the soles of its feet are flicked and resists attempts to straighten its legs. You should assign an Apgar score of: A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9 - ANS~ C. 8 The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord. B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. D. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg. - ANS~ A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord. While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: Select one: A. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery. B. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing. C. push the infant's head away from the cord. D. carefully push the cord back into the vagina. - ANS~ C. push the infant's head away from the cord. Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: A. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord. B. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly. C. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis. D. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae. - ANS~ D. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae. Your patient is 36-year-old female who is about to deliver her sixth child and it is obvious that delivery is imminent. You and your partner set-up for a field delivery and mom starts pushing. Immediately after delivery, how should you position the infant? A. At the the level of the mother's vagina, with the infants head slightly elevated. B. Lower than the mother's vagina, with the infants head at the same level as the body C. At the level of the mother's vagina, with its head slightly lower than the body. D. Higher than the mother's vagina, with the infants head slightly elevated - ANS~ C. At the level of the mother's vagina, with its head slightly lower than the body. Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? A. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. B. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's. C. By 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. D. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. - ANS~ B. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's. An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: Choose one answer. A. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. B. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. C. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. D. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. - ANS~ A. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: A) 9 and 18 months. B) 6 and 8 months. C) 7 and 14 months. D) 3 and 4 months. - ANS~ A) 9 and 18 months. An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: A. excessive tearing. B. moist oral mucosa. C. bulging fontanelles. D. absent urine output. - ANS~ D. absent urine output. Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? A. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up B. knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance C. responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently D. walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions - ANS~ A. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? A. 6 to 8 months B. 10 to 18 months C. 18 to 24 months D. 24 to 36 months - ANS~ B. 10 to 18 months The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: A. medication use. B. hypotension. C. kidney failure. D. atherosclerosis. - ANS~ D. atherosclerosis. Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: A. an oral airway has been inserted. B. his or her tidal volume is adequate. C. his or her respirations are shallow. D. he or she is breathing inadequately. - ANS~ B. his or her tidal volume is adequate. A 2-year-old child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: a. perform abdominal thrusts. b. perform a blind finger sweep. c. give oxygen and transport at once. d. visualize the child's airway. - ANS~ a. perform abdominal thrusts.