Hematology + Oncology Achieve Top Marks with Verified Q&A

undegraded rRna - Answer basophilic stippling is from FDP vs D - dimer - Answer Fdp from fibrinogen/ fibrin degradation D only fr fibrin; more specific f thrombin Sequence of primary hemostasis - Answer 1 vwf 2 gp1 crosslonked to collagen by vwf 3 adp ca txa2 4adp to p2y 5gp2/3 expr 6gp binds fibrinogen 6m, 11mg daily - Answer when and how much does a baby need iron? In the first stage IM) dose of unlabeled vitamin B12 is administered along with an oral dose of radiolabeled vitamin B12. The IM dose of vitamin B12 replenishes the body's tissue stores of B12 so that the radioactive B12 is not taken up by body tissues but is excreted in the urine. In stage 2 of the Schilling test, IF is administered along with the radiolabeled B12 No 1, norm 2--pernicous anemia levels of urinary vitamin B12 in both- B12 deficiency caused by intestinal bacterial overgrowth or terminal ileum resection - Answer Schilling test variable RBC shapes - Answer Poikilocytosis (definition) residual rRNA - Answer what causes the bluish color of reticulocytes? (Wright-Giemsa stain) 120 days - Answer erythrocyte life span 0, rh- - Answer Which blood groups have igG ab? hypotensive shock secondary to histamine release, allergic reaction, and rare cases of neural and renal toxicity. - Answer Deferoxamine adv eff 2 | P a g e glucose for energy: 90% glycolysis, 10% HPM shunt, Cl/HCO3 antiport allows CO2 transport - Answer Erythrocyte metabolism characteristics variable RBC sizes - Answer Anisocytosis (definition) 8-10 days - Answer Platelets life span immature RBC, indicates erythroid proliferation - Answer Reticulocyte vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin - Answer Platelets alpha granules contents primary hemostasis - Answer Platelets function platelet - Answer identify the cell type macrophage - Answer identify the cell type activated by endothlial injury, aggregates w/ other platelets, fibrinogen, vWF - Answer Platelets role in primary hemostasis ADP, Ca2+ - Answer Platelets dense granules contents eosinophil - Answer identify the cell type RBC - Answer identify the cell type mast cell - Answer identify the cell type neutrophil - Answer identify the cell type monocyte - Answer identify the cell type dendritic cell - Answer identify the cell type lymphocyte - Answer identify the cell type basophil - Answer identify the cell type leukocyte alk phos, collagenase, lysozyme, lactoferrin - Answer Neutrophil specific granules contents proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, beta glucoronidase - Answer Neutrophil azurophilic granules contents plasma cell - Answer identify the feature indicated by the arrows and the cell type acute inflammation, bacterial infections, phagocytic - Answer Neutrophils function multilobed nucleus, specific/azurophilic granules - Answer Neutrophil histologic morphology C5a, IL8, LTB4, kallikrein, PAF - Answer important neutrophil chemotactic agents 3 | P a g e B12/folate deficiency - Answer what pathologies are associated with hypersegmented neutrophils? (>6 lobes) immature neutrophil - Answer band cell myeloid proliferation: bacterial infections, CML - Answer what pathologies are associated with band cells? differentiate into tissue macrophages - Answer Monocytes function large kidney shaped nucleus, frosted glass cytosol - Answer Monocyte histologic morphology phagocytosis of bacteria, cell debris, senescent RBCs, function as APC, granuloma formation - Answer Macrophage function IFN-gamma - Answer important macrophage activating agents bacterial LPS lipid A binds CD14 - Answer Macrophage -what initiates septic shock mediate allergic reactions - Answer Basophil function heparin, histamine, (not in granules) leukotrienes - Answer Basophil granule contents Kupffer cells in liver, histiocytes in CT - Answer Macrophages alternate names antihelminthic via major basic protein, Ag-Ab complex phagocytosis - Answer Eosinophil function bilobed nucleus, large eosinophilic granules - Answer Eosinophil histologic morphology histamine, MBP, peroxidase, cationic protein, eosinophil derived neurotoxin - Answer Eosinophil granule contents neoplasia, asthma, allergy, chronic adrenal insufficiency, parasites - Answer common pathogenic causes of eosinophilia densely basophilic granules - Answer Basophil histologic morphology mediates local allergic reactions, type I hypersensitivity, bind IgE Fc, crosslinking causes degranulation - Answer mast cell function basophilic granules - Answer mast cell histologic morphology MHC II, Fc receptors - Answer Dendritic cell important plasma membrane proteins histamine, heparin, tryptase, eosinophil chemotactic factors - Answer mast cell granule contents inhibits mast cell degranulation - Answer Cromolyn sodium MOA myeloproliferative disease, CML - Answer what pathologies are associated with basophilia? highly phagocytic APC - Answer Dendritic cell function 4 | P a g e asthma prophylaxis - Answer Cromolyn sodium clinical uses langerhans cell in skin - Answer Dendritic cell alternate name vWF receptor - Answer platelet GpIb function fibrinogen receptor - Answer platelet GpIIb/IIIa function round, densely staining nucleus, small pale cytosol - Answer lymphocyte histologic morphology produced, matures in bone marrow, migrates to peripheral lypmhoid tissue - Answer B cell production/maturation/adult location CD 19, 20, 21 - Answer B cell associated cellular markers CD3, 8 - Answer cytotoxic T cell associated cellular markers CD3, CD4 - Answer helper T cell associated cellular markers costimulatory signal, required for activation - Answer CD28 function (T cells) originates in bone marrow, matures in thymus, migrates to lymphoid tissue - Answer T cell production/maturation/adult location differentiated into plasma cells, produce antibodies, memory functions, can function as APC - Answer B cell function clock face chromatin distribution, eccentric nucleus, abundant RER, well developed golgi apparatus - Answer plasma cell histologic morphology bone marrow, lymphoid tissue, do not normally circulate - Answer plasma cell typical location antibody production - Answer plasma cell function yolk sac - Answer fetal erythropoiesis location (3-8 weeks) zeta, epsilon - Answer embryonic hemoglobin subunits plasma cell malignancy - Answer multiple myeloma (definition) liver, spleen (10-28 weeks) - Answer fetal erythropoiesis location (6 weeks-birth) liver, spleen, bone marrow - Answer neonate erythropoiesis location (>18 weeks) alpha2, delta2 - Answer HbA2 subunits (present in small amounts in adult) A - Answer Type A blood: antigen on RBC surface alpha2, gamma2 - Answer fetal hemoglobin (HbF) subunits alpha2, beta2 - Answer adult hemoglobin (HbA1) subunits 5 | P a g e higher, less 2,3-BPG binding, allows O2 extraction from maternal Hb - Answer HbF relative O2 affinity (relative to adult hemoglobin, with mechanism) A, B - Answer Type AB blood: antigen on RBC surface anti-B IgM - Answer Type A blood: plasma antibodies B - Answer Type B blood: antigen on RBC surface none - Answer Type AB blood: plasma antibodies none - Answer Type O blood: antigen on RBC surface anti-A, anti-B IgM - Answer Type O blood: plasma antibodies anti-D IgG - Answer Rh- blood type: plasma antibodies anti-A IgM - Answer Type B blood: plasma antibodies no - Answer does IgM cross the placenta A, O - Answer which blood types can a patient with type A blood receive in a transfusion? B, O - Answer which blood types can a patient with type B blood receive in a transfusion? any (A, B, AB, O) - Answer which blood types can a patient with type AB blood receive in a transfusion? O - Answer which blood types can a patient with type O blood receive in a transfusion? Rh/D - Answer Rh+ blood type: antigen on RBC surface none - Answer Rh- blood type: antigen on RBC surface none - Answer Rh+ blood type: plasma antibodies mother needs to be treated with RhoGAM to prevent anti-D IgG formation - Answer clinical signifiance of Rh- blood types yes - Answer does IgG cross the placenta? Rh- mother exposed to fetal Rh+ blood, make anti-D IgG, crosses placenta, causes fetal hemolysis - Answer Rh hemolytic dise.........