CPSGT PRACTICE TEST 2 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE RATIONLAE

CPSGT PRACTICE TEST 2 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE RATIONLAE The goals of PAP therapy include all of the following EXCEPT to ve diminished lung capacity. b. eliminate flow limitations in the upper airway. c. eliminate excessive daytime somnolence. d. eliminate snoring. - CORRECT ANSW-A: Improve diminished lung capacity. The CPAP and BiPAP used in the sleep lab are non-invasive respiratory therapies that do not have effects on patient's lung capacity or tidal volumes. The focus of the PAP devices is to maintain the structural integrity of the airway, especially the upper airway, to prevent collapses that result in obstructive apneas and snoring. To ensure REM sleep has a chance to occur during a multiple sleep latency test nap, how long should that nap continue? a. 25 minutes following "lights out." b. 15 minutes following sleep onset. c. 15 minutes following "lights out." d. 20 minutes following sleep onset - CORRECT ANSWB: 15 minutes following sleep onset. According to the guidelines of the American Academy of Sleep Medicine for the operation of a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT), a MSLT nap continues for 15 minutes following sleep onset. The first thing for which the MSLT is looking is to see if the patient is capable of falling asleep in a 20- minute space of time. If a patient does not fall asleep within 20 minutes, the nap is ended. If the patient falls asleep during the 20- minute window, the nap continues for 15 more minutes from that time to see if REM can be reached shortly after sleep onset. Staging choices for infants include which of the following combinations? a. Active REM sleep and quiet sleep. b. Indeterminate sleep, wake, and quiet sleep. c. Active REM sleep and delta sleep. d. Indeterminate sleep, active REM sleep, and quiet sleep. - CORRECT ANSW-D: When scoring infant sleep studies, the only available options for sleep stage scoring are indeterminate sleep, active REM sleep, and quiet sleep. At around 6 months of age, pediatric scoring rules become more applicable as waveforms, such as sleep spindles, become manifested. An infant's EEG is so unlike the pediatric and adult waveforms that identifying the standard sleep stages would be impossible. Heated humidity can possibly remedy which of the following conditions seen in some patients? a. Patient complains of being cold. b. Patient mouth-breathes because of nasal congestion. c. Patient complains of dry throat or nose. d. Both B and C. - CORRECT ANSW-D: When scoring infant sleep studies, the only available options for sleep stage scoring are indeterminate sleep, active REM sleep, and quiet sleep. At around 6 months of age, pediatric scoring rules become more applicable as waveforms, such as sleep spindles, become manifested. An infant's EEG is so unlike the pediatric and adult waveforms that identifying the standard sleep stages would be impossible. What is the standard length of time of each epoch during the scoring of stages in a PSG? a. 30 seconds. b. 45 seconds. c. 3 minutes. d. 10 minutes. - CORRECT ANSW-A: According to guidelines of the American Academy of Sleep Medicine entitled, "The Visual Scoring of Sleep in Adults," scoring by 30-second epochs was retained from the Rechtshaffen and Kales process of scoring sleep studies. The reason for the either 20- or 30-second view of the EEG is the ability to see the vertex spike waves, complexes, and spindles clearly enough to confirm sleep staging An alternating EEG pattern seen during quiet sleep in a newborn infant, consisting of both highand low-voltage activity is termed a. active sleep. b. trace alternant. c. sawtooth waves. d. slow-wave sleep - CORRECT ANSW-B: Trace alternant is the NREM sleep for infants that diminishes and becomes nonexistent between 3-6 weeks of age in healthy infants. This pattern is found in an infant's slow-wave sleep and after the first month of life; it is gradually replaced with sleep spindles. Electrical safety requires all of the following actions from a technician EXCEPT a. checking the conditions of wires to assure none are frayed or damaged. b. the application of a ground placed with the pulse oximetry probe. c. the application of a ground lead wire placed on the head for the PSG. d. keeping liquid away from all electrical components - CORRECT ANSW-B: the application of a ground placed with the pulse oximetry probe. Pulse oximetry devices are very low-voltage, passive electrical devices that do not require a ground to avoid patient electrocution. Pulse oximetry is a direct current electrical device. Frayed and exposed wires, improperly grounded surface electrodes, as well as wet equipment can electrocute a patient. What physiological effects does CPAP have on the body? a. b. Improves pulmonary function. c. Increases blood-gas exchange efficacy. d. Controls respiratory rate. - CORRECT ANSW-A: Splints the airway to allow breaths to pass through without occlusion. The CPAP will not increase pulmonary function in patients, and it will not improve the rate at which oxygen is transferred into the heart. However, CPAP supports the structural integrity of the airway when patients fail to hold the airway open with their own muscles. By preventing a collapse of the airway, an apneic patient will never have to struggle to reopen their airway while asleep. Before a technician begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a patient, basic life support procedures require the technician to do which of the following? a. Contact a nurse for assistance. b. Verify the patient's unresponsiveness. c. Check the patient's pulse. d. Listen for the patient's breath - CORRECT ANSW-B: Verify the patient's unresponsiveness. According to "Basic Life Support Procedures" from the American Heart Association, health care providers should not initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on conscious and responsive patients. That is not to say that a patient must be unresponsive for it to be an emergency situation; however, CPR does require the patient to be unconscious