Anatomy and Physiology- Midterm

Anatomy and Physiology- Midterm Which of the explanations below shows the correct relationship between anatomy and physiology? A- anatomy and physiology are not related, but two distinct fields of study B-The structure of a body part determines its function within the human body C-The anatomist determines the function of a body part and the physiologist determines the morphology D-Physiologists examine the organization of body parts while the anatomist tries to describe how and why the body part works like it does - ANS B-The structure of a body part determines its function within the human body What is the next part in regards to levels of organization? Subatomic particle, Atom, Molecule, _______________. A-Organelle B-Cell C-Macromolecule D-Tissue - ANS C-Macromolecule Choose the level of organization that correctly matches with the examples given. A-Molecule; Electrons, protons, neutrons B-Tissue; Simple squamous epithelium, bone C-Macromolecule; Water molecule (H2O), glucose molecule (C6H12O6) D-Organ; Integumentary system, skeletal system, digestive system - ANS B-Tissue; Simple squamous epithelium, bone The collection of chemical reactions in cells that support life is known as? A-Assimilation B-Metabolism C-Respiration D-Digestion - ANS B-Metabolism The body's ability to keep its internal conditions stable, such that its cells can survive, is referred to as? A-Metabolic control point B-Self-limiting C-Internal regulation D-Homeostasis - ANS D-Homeostasis Which of the following is NOT one of the three components found in homeostatic mechanisms? A-Receptors B-Control center (set point) C-Effectors D-Sensors - ANS D-Sensors Which of the following homeostatic mechanisms is an example of positive feedback? A-Blood pressure regulation B-Blood clotting C-Blood glucose regulation D-Body temperature regulation - ANS B-Blood Clotting Which section of the human body can be attributed to the appendicular portion? A-Head B-Neck C-Lower limbs D-Trunk - ANS C-Lower Limbs Viscera refers to what in the body? A-Axial sections of the body B-Brain and spinal cord C-Internal Organs of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities D-All organs of the endocrine system - ANS C-Internal Organs of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities What organ separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity? A-Diaphragm B-Heart C-Parietal pleura D-Stomach - ANS A-Diaphragm What position is being described here? Standing erect; face forward; upper limbs at the sides, palms forward. A-Relative Position B-General Position C-Anatomical Position D-Standing Position - ANS C-Anatomical Position This term of relative position describes a part closer to a point of attachment to the trunk than another body part? A-Superior B-Proximal C-Distal D-Posterior (dorsal) - ANS B-Proximal A lengthwise section/plane that divides the body into right and left portions is termed... A-Parasagittal B-Midsagittal C-Sagittal D-Transverse (horizontal) - ANS C-Sagittal Identify the adjective used to describe the chin. A-Sural B-Frontal C-Buccal D-Mental - ANS D-Mental What is the branch of science that is concerned with the composition of substances and how they change? A-Botany B-Biology C-Anatomy D-Chemistry - ANS D-Chemistry Anything that has weight and takes up space (Anything with Mass and Volume) is referred to as what? A-A solid B-A liquid C-A gas D-Matter - ANS D-Matter The simplest example of matter with specific chemical properties is known as what? A-An element B-Matter C-A molecule D-A compound - ANS A-An element Substance composed of two or more different elements that are bonded together A-An element B-Matter C-A molecule D-A compound - ANS D-A compound Elements like arsenic, required in only very small amounts by the body, and are toxic in large amounts, are called what? A-Trace elements B-Bulk elements C-Ultratrace elements D-None of the above - ANS C-Ultratrace elements Negatively charged particles that constantly move around the nucleus of an atom are called... A-Electrons B-Neutrons C-Protons D-Photons - ANS A-Electrons The number of protons in an atom of a particular element is referred to as what? A-Atomic weight B-Atomic number C-The atom's isotope D-Atomic mass - ANS B-Atomic number A complete atom has the same amount of protons and electrons. This means the atom is what? A-Stable B-Electrically neutral C-Inert D-A radioactive (unstable) isotope - ANS B-Electrically neutral The first three electron shells can hold a maximum of how many electrons? (Order: 1st;2nd;3rd) A-2;8;8 B-2;2;8 C-8;8;2 D-8;2;8 - ANS A-2;8;8 With the exception of the first shell, atoms will combine to form compounds to achieve the goal of 8 electrons per shell. This rule is called what? A-Rule of Eight B-Frank Starling Law C-Rule of Nines D-Octet Rule - ANS D-Octet Rule Atoms whose electron shells are filled (like helium) are considered what? A-Electrically charged B-Inert C-Unstable D-Ions - ANS B-Inert Atoms that gain or lose electrons become electrically charged and are called what? A-Electrolytes B-Isotopes C-Polar D-Ions - ANS D-ions Substances that release electrically charged particles in water are called.. A-Electrolytes B-Soluble C-Polar D-Ions - ANS A-Electrolytes This bond results from the sharing of electrons between atoms to achieve a full outer shell. A-Ionic Bond B-Covalent Bond C-Hydrogen Bond D-Metallic Bond - ANS B-Covalent Bond Ions with opposite charges attract eachother, forming this type of bond. A-Ionic Bond B-Covalent Bond C-Hydrogen Bond D-Metallic Bond - ANS A-Ionic Bond Positively charged ions are called what? A-Positrons B-Cations C-Anions D-Protons - ANS B-Cations If atoms of different elements combine covalently, they form molecules of substances referred to as what? A-Elemental molecules B-Salts C-Compounds D-Ionic compounds - ANS C-Compounds This type of shorthand formula shows the kinds and numbers of atoms in a molecule. A-Molecular formula B-Structural formula C-Empirical formula D-None of the above - ANS A-Molecular formula A molecule with an uneven distribution of charges is known as what? A-Metallic B-Ionic C-Nonpolar (covalent) D-Polar (polar covalent) - ANS D-Polar (polar covalent) The attraction of the positive hydrogen end of a polar molecule to the negative nitrogen or oxygen end of another polar molecule is what type of bond? (as with water; H2O bound to another H20 molecule) A-Ionic Bond B-Covalent Bond C-Hydrogen Bond D-Metallic Bond - ANS C-Hydrogen Bond Starting materials in chemical reactions are known as what? A-Products B-Reactants C-Catalysts D-All of the above - ANS B-Reactants When two or more Atoms, Ions, or molecules combine to form a larger, more complex molecule, the reaction is called a what? A-Synthesis reaction B-Decomposition reaction D-Exchange reaction D-Reversible reaction - ANS A-Synthesis reaction Acids, bases, and salts are all types of what? A-Ions B-Electrolytes C-Molecules D-None of the above - ANS B-Electrolytes Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called what? A-Bases B-Salts C-Acids D-None of the above - ANS C-Acids Each whole number increase or decrease on the pH scale represents a how many times difference? A-2x B-5x C-7x D-10x - ANS D-10x A pH that is 7.00 is considered what? A-Basic B-Acidic C-Alkaline D-Neutral - ANS B-Acidic What is the normal pH range of the blood? A-5.35-5.45 B-6.35-6.45 C-7.35-7.45 D-7.35-7.54 - ANS C-7.35-7.45 Blood pH that is below normal range is termed what? A-Acidic B-Acidosis C-Alkaline D-Alkalosis - ANS B-Acidosis A compound containing both carbon and hydrogen is termed what? A-Organic B-Inorganic C-Carbon dioxide D-Sodium chloride - ANS A-Organic Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of inorganic substances? A-Relatively simple B-Usually will dissolve in water and release ions C-Void of carbon and hydrogen combination D-More likely to dissolve in organic liquids - ANS D-More likely to dissolve in organic liquids Which of the following is NOT an example of an organic substance? A-Carbohydrates B-Calcium C-Lipids D-Nucleic acids - ANS B-Calcium What are the building blocks of carbohydrates? A-Monosaccharides B-Disaccharides C-Amino acids D-Nucleic acids - ANS A-Monosaccharides How many different types of amino acids are there? A-5 B-20 C-120 D-Over 10,000 - ANS B-20 What are the building blocks of nucleic acids? A-DNA B-RNA C-Amino acids D-Nucleotides - ANS D-Nucleotides Which of the following is NOT an example of nucleic acids? A-Protein B-RNA C-DNA D-All of the above are examples of nucleic acids - ANS A-Protein What are the basic units of the body? A-Atoms B-Molecules C-Cells D-Tissues - ANS C-Cells Cells with specialized characteristics are termed what? A-Stem cells B-Undifferentiated C-Differentiated D-Blast cells - ANS C-Differentiated Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 major parts of a cell? A-Nucleus B-Mitochondria C-Cytoplasm D-Cell membrane - ANS B-Mitochondria A membrane that functions by controlling the entrance and exit of substances is termed what? A-Selectively permeable B-Intact C-Active transport D-Cell membrane - ANS A-Selectively permeable The basic framework of the cell membrane is a phospholipid ________. A-Unilayer B-Bilayer C-Trilayer D-Quadlayer - ANS B-Bilayer Which of the following is impermeable to the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane? A-Oxygen B-Carbon dioxide C-Steroid hormones D-Glucose - ANS D-Glucose Membrane proteins that extend through both sides of the phospholipid bilayer are termed what? A-Integral proteins B-Peripheral proteins C-Transmembrane proteins D-None of the above - ANS C-Transmembrane proteins A type of membrane protein that guides cells on the move by enabling them to stick to each other is called what? A-Enzyme B-Cellular adhesion molecule (CAM) C-Elastin D-Collagen - ANS B-Cellular adhesion molecule (CAM) What is the function of ribosomes? A-Synthesize proteins B-Store and transport substances within a cell C-Convert energy to ATP D-Control passage of materials between nucleus and cytoplasm - ANS A-Synthesize proteins Which organelle's function is to package and modify protein molecules for transport and secretion? A-Lysosomes B-Nucleus C-Mitochondria D-Golgi apparatus - ANS D-Golgi apparatus Which organelle captures energy from glucose metabolism in the form of ATP? A-Rough endoplasmic reticulum B-Nucleus C-Mitochondria D-Smooth endoplasmic reticulum - ANS C-Mitochondria This organelle is considered the "garbage disposal" of the cell; containing 43 different enzymes that dismantle debri. A-Centrosome B-Lysosome C-Nucleus D-Smooth endoplasmic reticulum - ANS B-Lysosome Which of the following is NOT one of the threadlike protein structures of the cytoplasm that helps with cell support and movement? A-Microfilaments B-Microtubules C-Intermediate filaments D-Chromatin - ANS D-Chromatin Which organelle contains DNA? A-Nucleolus B-Nucleus C-Nuclear envelope D-Centrosome - ANS B-Nucleus Ribosome formation is located in which organelle? A-Mitochondria B-Rough endoplasmic reticulum C-Nucleolus D-Centrosome - ANS C-Nucleolus Which of the following movements in/out of cells requires energy from ATP? A-Diffusion B-Osmosis C-Facilitated Diffusion D-Endocytosis - ANS D-Endocytosis Which of the following movements in/out of cells does NOT require energy from ATP? A-Filtration B-Active transport C-Endocytosis D-Exocytosis - ANS A-Filtration The tendency of atoms, molecules, and ions in a liquid or air solution to move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration is called what? A-Filtration B-Diffusion C-Osmosis D-Active transport - ANS B-Diffusion Water molecules move through a selectively permeable membrane toward the solution with more impermeant solute in... A-Facilitated diffusion B-Filtration C-Osmosis D-Simple diffusion - ANS C-Osmosis Movement of particles through membranes from regions of lower concentration to regions of higher concentration is called what? A-Passive transport B-Filtration C-Active transport D-Simple diffusion - ANS C-Active transport If a cell is placed into a hypotonic solution, what will happen to the cell? A-Nothing B-It will shrink C-It will swell D-It will crenate - ANS C-It will swell Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 forms of endocytosis? A-Pinocytosis B-Phagocytosis C-Receptor-mediated endocytosis D-Transcytosis - ANS D-Transcytosis Which of the following methods of movement does HIV utilize to enter the human body? A-Endocytosis B-Exocytosis C-Active transport D-Transcytosis - ANS D-Transcytosis Which stage of the cell cycle includes 2 growth phases and a DNA replication (synthesis) stage? A-Interphase B-Mitosis C-Cytokinesis D-None of the above - ANS A-Interphase In this stage of mitosis, chromatin condenses into chromosomes and the nuclear membrane and nucleolus disperse A-Prophase B-Metaphase C-Anaphase D-Telophase - ANS A-Prophase In this stage of mitosis, sister chromatids are pulled apart towards opposite ends of the cell. A-Prophase B-Metaphase C-Anaphase D-Telophase - ANS C-Anaphase Which stage of the cell cycle involves the dividing of nuclear contents in what is called "karyokinesis"? A-Interphase B-Mitosis C-Cytokinesis D-S phase - ANS B-Mitosis Which type of intercellular junction forms tubular channels between cells which allow for the exchange of substances like ions, sugars, amino acids, and nucleotides? A-Desmosomes B-Tight junctions C-Gap junctions D-All of the above - ANS C-Gap junctions True or False: epithelial tissues lack blood vessels? A-True B-False - ANS True What is the primary function of epithelial tissue? A-Conduct impulses for coordination, regulation, integration, and sensory reception B-Movement C-Bind, support, protect, fill spaces, store fat, produce blood cells D-Protection, secretion, absorption, excretion - ANS D-Protection, secretion, absorption, excretion Where is epithelial tissue located? A-Cover body surface, cover and line internal organs, compose glands B-Widely distributed throughout the body C-Attached to bones, in the walls of hollow internal organs, heart D-Brain, spinal cord, nerves - ANS A-Cover body surface, cover and line internal organs, compose glands Which of the following describes the correct characteristics of simple squamous epithelium in terms of cell shape and number of layers? A-Cube shape; many layers B-Cube shape; single layer C-Flat shape; many layers D-Flat shape; single layer - ANS D-Flat shape; single layer Which of the following types of epithelial tissue is found lining the urinary bladder? A-Simple squamous epithelium B-Transitional epithelium C-Glandular epithelium D-Stratified squamous epithelium - ANS B-Transitional epithelium Which of the following types of epithelial tissue is found lining the respiratory passages? A-Simple squamous epithelium B-Stratified columnar epithelium C-Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D-Stratified squamous epithelium - ANS C-Pseudostratified columnar epithelium Glands that secrete their products into tissue fluid or blood are called... A-Endocrine glands B-Exocrine glands - ANS A-Endocrine glands Which of the following is true of exocrine glands? A-Consist of a single epithelial cell B-Composed of many cells C-All of the above D-None of the above - ANS C-All of the above This type of exocrine gland releases entire cells with its secretions? A-Merocrine gland B-Apocrine gland C-Holocrine gland D-None of the above - ANS C-Holocrine gland These cells of connective tissue release substances that may help prevent blood clotting (heparin) and promote inflammation (histamine). A-Fibroblasts B-Macrophages C-Mast Cells D-Erythrocytes - ANS C-Mast Cells Which of the following is NOT a type of connective tissue? A-Blood B-Bone C-Smooth muscle tissue D-Adipose tissue - ANS C-Smooth muscle tissue Which component of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue has thick, threadlike fibers with great tensile strength that holds structures together? A-Collagen fibers B-Elastic fibers C-Reticular fibers D-Ground substance - ANS A-Collagen fibers Which type of connective tissue is found on the ends of bones, nose, and rings in the walls of the respiratory passages? A-Dense regular connective tissue B-Hyaline cartilage C-Elastic cartilage D-Fibrocartilage - ANS B-Hyaline cartilage This connective tissue makes up the dermis of the skin? A-Adipose connective tissue B-Dense regular connective tissue C-Dense irregular connective tissue D-Reticular connective tissue - ANS C-Dense irregular connective tissue Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 major types of epithelial membranes? A-Serous membranes B-Mucous membranes C-Cutaneous membrane D-Synovial membrane - ANS D-Synovial membrane Which type of membrane lines the walls of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities? A-Serous membrane B-Mucous membrane C-Cutaneous membrane D-Synovial membrane - ANS A-Serous membrane Which of the following types of muscle tissue is considered voluntary? A-Smooth muscle B-Cardiac muscle C-Skeletal muscle D-Both smooth and skeletal muscle - ANS C-Skeletal muscle Which of the following types of muscle tissue has striations? A-Smooth muscle B-Cardiac muscle C-Skeletal muscle D-Both cardiac and skeletal muscle - ANS D-Both cardiac and skeletal muscle Which of the following types of muscle tissue is multinucleated? A-Smooth muscle B-Cardiac muscle C-Skeletal muscle D-Both cardiac and smooth muscle - ANS C-Skeletal muscle This type of muscle tissue has cells that are connected by specialized intercellular junctions called intercalated discs. A-Smooth muscle B-Cardiac muscle C-Skeletal muscle D-Both cardiac and skeletal muscle - ANS B-Cardiac muscle Where in the body can nervous tissue be found? A-Brain B-Spinal cord C-Peripheral nerves D-All of the above - ANS D-All of the above Neurons receive incoming signals that stimulate cellular processes called what? A-Axons B-Dendrites C-Cilia D-Flagella - ANS B-Dendrites What role does neuroglia play within nervous tissue? A-Bind and support nervous tissue B-Carry on phagocytosis C-Connect neurons to blood vessels D-All of the above - ANS D-All of the above The epidermis is made of this tissue: A. loose connective tissue B. stratified squamous epithelium C. dense irregular connective tissue D. adipose - ANS B-Stratified squamous epithelium These cells are responsible for the ability of the epidermis to resist abrasion and reduce water loss: A. melanocytes B. Merkel cells C. Langerhans cells D. keratinocytes - ANS D. keratinocytes This layer of skin replaces older cells that desquamate with newer cells by mitosis: A. stratum granulosum B. stratum basale C. stratum lucidum D. stratum corneum - ANS B-Stratum Basale Thin skin: A. lacks a stratum lucidum B. contains hair C. is found on the back D. all of these E. none of these - ANS D- all of these Cyanosis, blue tinted skin, is caused by this: A. excess carotene B. decreased melanin production C. decreased oxygen in the blood D. increased blood flow - ANS C-decreased oxygen in the blood The dermis is made of this kind of tissue: A. adipose B. epithelium C. connective D. keratin - ANS C- connective This is not associated with the dermis: A. melanocytes B. nerve endings C. lymphatic vessels D. hair follicles - ANS A-melanocytes These lines of scar tissue are formed from excess stretching of the skin: A. fingerprints B. dermal papillae C. cleavage (tension) lines D. striae - ANS D. striae These folds shape the epidermis into fingerprints: A. strata B. dermal papillae C. corpuscles D. arrector pili - ANS B-Dermal papillae This layer contains blood vessels that nourish the epidermis, remove wastes and regulate body temperature: A. reticular layer B. hypodermis C. papillary layer D. stratum basale - ANS C-papillary layer Near birth, the hair on the scalp, eyelids and eyebrows are replaced with this: A. terminal hair B. lanugo C. vellus hair - ANS A-terminal hair This layer of cells in the hair forms the surface and contains hard keratin: A. medulla B. cortex C. cuticle D. dermal root sheath - ANS C. cuticle These smooth muscles are attached to hair follicles and contraction of them produces "goose bumps": A. hairbulb B. arrector pili c. dermal root sheath D. epithelial root sheath - ANS B-arrector pili The nail is produced mostly by this: A. nail bed B. nail root C. nail fold D. nail matrix - ANS D- nail matrix This white crescent-shaped area is seen at the base of the nail: A. nail bed B. nail fold C. lunula D. eponychium E. hyponychium - ANS C-lunula These sweat glands are responsible for cooling the body: A. merocrine (eccrine) B. apocrine C. ceruminous D. sebaceous - ANS A-merocrine (eccrine) These modified apocrine sweat glands are found in the breasts: A. ceruminous B. sebaceous C. mammary D. mucous - ANS C. Mammary Sebaceous glands produce sebum, prevent drying of the skin, protect against some bacteria, and are classified as holocrine. A-True B-False - ANS A-True This gland is involved with the production of body odor: A. merocrine B. apocrine C. cermunious D. sebaceous - ANS B- apocrine These glands located in the external auditory meatus (ear canal) produce ear wax: A. apocrine B. ceruminous C. merocrine (eccrine) D. sebaceous - ANS B-ceruminous The major function of the skin is protection from this: A. abrasion B. dehydration C. ultraviolet light D. entry of microorganisms E. all of these - ANS E-all of theses This layer contains about half of the body's stored fat: A. epidermis B. dermis C. hypodermis (subcutaneous) D. stratum basale - ANS C-hypodermis (subcutaneous) This substance is synthesized in the skin and increases blood calcium for normal nerve and muscle function: A. vitamin A B. vitamin B C. vitamin C D. vitamin D - ANS D. vitamin D This best describes the function of melanin in the skin: A. reduces water loss B. protects against UV light C. helps regulate body temperature D. lubricates the skin - ANS B-protects against UV light These are all effects of aging on the integumentary system except: A. decrease of elastic fibers B. loss of fat from hypodermis C. decrease of melanin production in hair D. increase of sweat gland activity - ANS D- increase of sweat gland activity After the resting stage of hair growth, the hair: A. grows more rapidly B. falls out C. shortens the hair follicle D. loses its pigmentation - ANS B. falls out This is not part of the appendicular skeleton: A. pectoral girdle B. pelvic girdle C. lower limb D. coccyx E. All of these are part of the appendicular skeleton - ANS D- coccyx The axial skeleton protects the brain, spinal cord, and vital organs in the thorax. A.True B.False - ANS A-True The anatomical term for a hole in a bone that was once occupied by a nerve or blood vessel is known as this: A. foramen B. meatus C. fossa D. sulcus - ANS A-foramen This bone marking refers to a smooth, rounded articular surface: A. tubercle B. facet C. condyle D. tuberosity E. trochanter - ANS C-condyle This best describes the primary function of a process or tubercle: A. connects one bone to another B. attachment for ligaments and tendons C. creates a stress point on a bone D. found at joints - ANS B-attachment for ligaments and tendons The parietal and frontal bones are joined together by this suture: A. squamous B. coronal C. sagittal D. lambdoid - ANS B- coronal The brain and spinal cord are connected through this opening in the skull: A. foramen rotundum B. foramen ovale C. foramen magnum D. mental foramen - ANS C- foramen magnum The vomer and this structure together form the nasal septum: A. perpendicular plate of the ethmoid B. lacrimal bone C. palatine process of the maxilla D. nasal bone - ANS A-perpendicular plate of the ethmoid The viscerocranium (facial bones) serve as attachment points for the muscles involved in chewing and facial expression as well as protection of the eyes, nose and tongue. A.True B.False - ANS A.True The mandible articulates with the skull here: A. styloid process B. zygomatic arch C. occipital condyle D. mandibular fossa - ANS D. mandibular fossa There are this many lumbar vertebrae: A. 12 B. 5 C. 7 D. 1 - ANS B-5 Spinal nerves exit through this opening: A. intervertebral foramen B. vertebral foramen C. transverse foramen D. pedicle - ANS A-intervertebral foramen Characteristics of this bone include a small body, bifid spinous process, and transverse foramina: A. thoracic vertebra B. lumbar vertebra C. sacral vertebra D. cervical vertebra - ANS D-cervical vertebra The clavicle and first rib articulate with this specific part of the sternum: A. body B. xiphoid process C. manubrium D. scapula - ANS C- manubrium This feature of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra: A. head B. tubercle C. angle D. neck E. body - ANS B-tubercle The pectoral (shoulder) girdle is made of this: A. clavicle, scapula and humerus B. sternum, clavicle and scapula C. clavicle, ribs, scapula and sternum D. scapula and clavicle - ANS D-scapula and clavicle These bones form the knuckles of your hand: A. metacarpals B. carpals C. phalanges D. sesamoid - ANS A-metacarpals This part of your ulna is commonly referred to as the elbow: A. ulnar tuberosity B. styloid process c. medial epicondyle d. olecranon process - ANS D- olecranon process The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the radius at this point: A. radial tuberosity B. styloid process C. deltoid tuberosity D. head - ANS A- radial tuberosity This best describes the function of the acromion process: A. protects the shoulder joint B. attachment site for clavicle C. attachment point for muscles D. all of these - ANS D- all of these The ilium, ischium and pubis form this: A. pelvic girdle B. pelvis C. coxal bone (os coxae) D. sacroiliac joint - ANS C. coxal bone (os coxae) The female pelvis has a heart-shaped pelvic inlet, ischial spines that are closer together than a male and a subpubic angle that is less than 90 degrees. A.True B.False - ANS B- false This feature of the femur serves as a muscle attachment site that fastens the hip to the thigh:. A.head anter c. condyle d. epicondyle - ANS B-trochanter The process that forms the large bump on the medial side of the ankle is known as the medial _______: A. malleolus B. condyle C. tuberosity D. epicondyle - ANS A-malleolus This arch is formed by the calcaneus, cuboid and two lateral metatarsals: A. medial longitudinal B. lateral longitudinal C. transverse - ANS B-lateral longitudinal A paraplegic individual develops pressure sores on the buttocks from sitting in a wheelchair for extended periods. The bony protuberance responsible is this: A. ischial tuberosity B. ischial spine C. pubic tubercle D. anterior superior iliac spine - ANS A- ischial tuberosity These joints have no joint cavity and exhibit little or no movement: A. fibrous B. cartilagenous C. synovial - ANS A-fibrous These specialized joints consist of pegs that fit into sockets and are held together by regular collagenous connective tissue: A. sutures B. syndesmoses C. gomphoses D. synchondrosis - ANS C- gomphoses The joint found in between the intervertebral discs is: A. synchondrosis B. symphysis C. syndesmoses D. synostosis - ANS B-symphysis This extension of the synovial membrane extends as a pocket to provide a cushion between structures that would rub against each other: A. bursa B. tendon sheath C. joint capsule D. meniscus - ANS A-bursa These are all hinge joints found between these bones except: A. femur and tibia B. phalanges C. humerus and ulna and radius D. atlas and axis - ANS D-atlas and axis Flexion at the knee moves the leg in an anterior direction. A.True B.False - ANS B-False This movement consists of moving a structure in a gliding motion in an anterior direction: A. flexion B. medial excursion C. protraction D. retraction - ANS C-Protraction Abduction of the fingers will do this: A. spread them apart B. bring them together C. bend them D. straighten them - ANS A-spread them apart This movement of the forearm will allow you to hold a bowl of soup in your hands: A. flexion B. extension C. pronation D. supination - ANS D-supination These movements will move the right upper limb from the anatomical position to touch the right side of the head with the fingertips. A. shoulder flexion/ elbow flexion B. shoulder abduction/ elbow flexion C. extension of shoulder/ elbow flexion D. a and b - ANS D- a and b The shoulder joint is a ball and socket joint between the head of the humerus and glenoid cavity (fossa) of the scapula. A. True B. False - ANS A- True These movements are possible at the temperomandibular joint except: A. depression B. protraction C. rotation D. excursion - ANS C- rotation The following describe the elbow joint:• A. hinge B. can produce rotation C. olecranon bursa covers olecranon process D. surrounded by joint capsule E. all of these - ANS E- all of theses this structure helps to stabilize the shoulder joint: A. rotator cuff muscles B. cruciate ligaments C. articular disk D. medial and lateral collateral ligaments - ANS A- rotator cuff muscles This statement about a shoulder dislocation is true: A. most common dislocated joint B. usually occurs inferior to the axilla C. axillary nerve can be damaged D. all are true E. b and c only - ANS D- all are true The hip joint is an ellipsoid (condyloid) joint, which is a modified ball and socket joint. A. True B. False - ANS B- False The hip joint is formed by these bone features: A. pubic symphysis and lesser trochanter B. femoral head and acetabulum C. greater trochanter and acetabulum D. femoral head and ischial tuberosity - ANS B- femoral head and acetabulum This movement is produced at the knee joint: A. flexion B. extension C. abduction D. adduction E. a and b - ANS E- a and b A sprained ankle is most often a result of this: A. crushed talus B. torn calcaneofibular ligament C. fracture of fibular lateral malleolus D. fracture of tibial medial malleolus - ANS B-torn calcaneofibular ligament This ligament can be torn when the knee receives a blow to the anterior surface or if it is hyperextended: A. tibial collateral ligament B. fibular collateral ligament C. anterior cruciate ligament D. posterior cruciate ligament - ANS C-anterior cruciate ligament This synovial joint is the most freely movable: A. hinge B. saddle C. gliding D. ball and socket - ANS D- ball and socket This kind of movement occurs in ballet when dancers point their toes: A. dorsiflexion B. plantarflexion C. inversion D. eversion - ANS B- plantarflexion In some elderly, when a suture becomes ossified, two bones grow together to become a single bone. This is called: A. syndesmosis B. synostosis C. synchondrosis D. gomphosis - ANS B-synostosis The ulnar collateral and radial collateral ligament are found in this joint: A. knee B. shoulder C. hip D. elbow - ANS D- elbow This condition is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue: A. osteoarthritis (degenerative) B. rheumatoid arthritis C. gout D. hemophilic arthritis - ANS B-rheumatoid arthritis These are all results of the aging of joints except: A. production decline of synovial fluid B. production decline of new matrix C. ligaments and tendons stretch D. tissue repair slows - ANS C-ligaments and tendons stretch When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the relatively stationary end of attachment of the muscle is termed this: A. origin B. insertion C. antagonist D. belly - ANS B- insertion When a muscle contracts, it usually has an opposing muscle that can cause movement in the opposite direction called this: A. prime mover B. agonist C. antagonist D. synergist - ANS C-antagonist Knowing that muscles are often named for their anatomical location, the brachialis, coracobrachialis and brachioradialis would all be found in this region: A. arm B. forearm C. trunk D. thigh E. leg - ANS A- arm This pair is matched correctly: A. fulcrum-joint B. lever-bone C. pull (force)-muscles D. all are correct - ANS D- all are correct The action of the biceps brachii muscle pulling on the radius to flex the elbow and elevate the hand is an example of this kind of lever: A. class I lever system B. class II lever system C. class III lever system - ANS C- class III lever system Winking or blinking the eye is controlled by this muscle: A. corrugator supercilii B. depressor anguli oris C. orbicularis oculi D. occipitofrontalis E. orbicularis oris - ANS C- orbicularis oculi These muscles of the neck tilts the head down and toward the side: A. scalenes B. sternocleidomastoid C. splenius capitis D. semispinalis - ANS B- sternocleidomastoid These muscles are all involved in mastication (chewing) except: A. temporalis B. masseter C. buccinator D. lateral pterygoid E. medial pterygoid - ANS C- buccinator This best describes the action of the soft palate muscles: A. prevent food from entering the nasal cavity B. close the auditory tube C. force food into the esophagus D. prevent food from entering the larynx - ANS A-prevent food from entering the nasal cavity Your five year old son is gazing up into the sky at night to see a shooting star. He is using these eye muscles to look upward: A. inferior oblique B. lateral rectus. C. medial rectus D. superior oblique E. superior rectus - ANS E- superior rectus This muscle produces the major movement made during quiet breathing: A. scalene B. diaphragm C. external intercostals D. internal intercostals - ANS B- diaphragm This action is accomplished by the erector spinae muscles: A. abduct the thigh B. extend the vertebral column C. flex the vertebral column D. protract the scapula E. rotate the thigh - ANS B- extend the vertebrae column This is the deepest abdominal muscle: A. external oblique B. internal oblique C. transversus abdominis D. rectus abdominis - ANS C- transversus abdominis The six pack seen on a body builder's abdomen is caused by the tendinous intersections in this muscle: A. external abdominal oblique B. internal abdominal oblique C. linea alba D. rectus abdominis E. transversus abdominis - ANS D- rectus abdominis The pelvic diaphragm, which forms the pelvic floor, is made of this: A. coccygeus muscle B. levator ani muscle C. external urethral sphincter muscle D. a only E. a and b - ANS E- a and b This muscle flexes both the arm and the forearm: A. biceps brachii B. brachialis C. deltoid D. latissimus dorsi E. triceps brachii - ANS A- biceps brachiii The trapezius muscle produces all of these actions except: A. elevates scapula B. depresses scapula C. retracts scapula D. extends neck E. flexes neck - ANS E- flexes neck Most of the anterior forearm muscles are responsible for this: A. extension of the wrist and fingers B. extension of the forearm C. flexion of the wrist and fingers D. flexion of the forearm E. flexion of the arm - ANS C- flexion of the wrist and fingers The tendon of the flexor carpi radialis is an important landmark because the radial pulse can be felt just lateral to the tendon. A. true B. False - ANS A- True This muscle(s) is an intrinsic hand muscle that moves the thumb: A. flexor pollicis brevis B. flexor digiti minimi brevis C. flexor pollicis longus D. extensor pollicis longus E. all of the above - ANS A- Flexor pollicis brevis The medial group of thigh muscles is involved primarily in this movement:• A. abduction of the thigh B. adduction of the thigh• C. extension of the thigh D. flexion of the thigh E. flexion of the leg - ANS B- Adduction of the thigh This muscle flexes the thigh and extends the knee: A. vastus medialis B. vastus lateralis C. rectus femoris D. biceps femoris - ANS C- rectus femoris Anterior leg muscles produce this movement: A. dorsiflex the foot B. flex the leg C. plantarflex the foot D. extend the leg E. flex the toes - ANS A- dorsiflex the foot Hip extension is produced by all of these muscles except: A. gluteus maximus B. gluteus medius C. semimembranosus D. semitendinosus E. biceps femoris - ANS B- gluteus medius This muscle of the leg attaches to the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon: A. tibialis anterior B. peroneus longus C. gastrocnemius D. soleus E. c and d only - ANS E- c and d only The mechanical support of the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa is weakest in the inferior direction. These muscles help prevent dislocation of the shoulder when a heavy weight such as a suitcase is carried: A. teres major B. pectoralis major C. supraspinatus D. deltoid - ANS C- supraspinatus This is NOT a part of the peripheral nervous system: A. cranial nerve B. ganglion C. spinal cord D. spinal nerve - ANS C- spinal cord This extensive network of axons is located outside of the CNS: A. ganglion B. plexus C. sensory receptor D. spinal cord - ANS B- plexus This portion of the motor division of the nervous system conducts action potentials from the central nervous system to skeletal muscle fibers. A. afferent B. autonomic C. somatic D. sympathetic - ANS C- somatic The cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in the dorsal root ganglion near the spinal cord. A. True B. False - ANS A. True __________ pairs of cranial nerves originate from the brain, and __________ pairs of spinal nerves originate from the spinal cord. A. two, twelve B. eight, twenty-four C. twelve, thirty-one D. fifteen, thirty-six E. sixteen, thirty-eight - ANS C- twelve, thirty-one These cells conduct action potentials from one neuron to another within the CNS: A. sensory (afferent) neurons B. motor (efferent) neurons C. interneurons (association) neurons D. bipolar neurons - ANS C- interneurons (association) neurons Axons terminate by branching to form small extensions with enlarged ends which are called this: A. dendrites B. neuron cell bodies C. presynaptic terminals D. postsynaptic membranes E. axon hillocks - ANS C- presynaptic terminals These cell types produce and help circulate cerebrospinal fluid: A. astrocytes B. microglia C. ependymal cells D. Schwann cells E. oligodendrocytes - ANS C- ependymal cells These statements about unipolar neurons are all true except: A. most are sensory neurons B. have a single process extending from the cell body C. located in the eye and nasal cavity D. have no dendrites - ANS C- located in the eye and nasal cavity This statement best describes the myelin sheath: A. made of Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes) B. covering surrounding an axon C. provides insulation from other axons D. helps conduct the action potential more rapidly E. all are true - ANS E- all are true Compared to the outside of the resting plasma membrane, the inside surface of the membrane is this: A. positively charged B. electrically neutral C. negatively charged D. continuously reversing so that it is positive one second and negative the next - ANS C- negatively charged Because of the sodium-potassium pump, there are: A. more K+ outside the cell than inside and more Na+ inside the cell than outside B. more K+ inside the cell than outside and Na+ outside the cell than inside C. more K+ and Na inside the cell than outside D. more K+ and Na outside the cell than inside - ANS B- more K+ inside the cell than outside and Na+ outside the cell than inside The resting membrane potential results when the tendency for these ions to diffuse out of the cell is balanced by their attraction to opposite charges inside the cell: A. Na+ B. K+ C. Cl- D. negatively charged proteins E. Ca2+ - ANS B- K+ The resting membrane potential of nerve cells due to the electric charge difference across the plasma membranes is approximately -85mv. A. True B. False - ANS B- False Hyperpolarization, which is an increase in membrane potential, can be caused by this: A. opening of Cl- gated channels B. opening of Ca2+ gated channels C. opening of Na+ gated channels D. increase of extracellular K+ - ANS A- opening of CL gated channels The following are characteristics of action potentials except: A. all-or-none B. caused by graded potentials reaching threshold C. stimulus strength determines the magnitude D. depolarization is followed by repolarization - ANS C- stimulus strength determines the magnitude Depolarization occurs because more Na+ diffuse into the cell than K + diffuse out of it. A. True B. False - ANS A- True This best describes the absolute refractory period: A. limits how many action potentials can be produced during a given period of time B. prevents an action potential from starting another action potential at the same point on the plasma membrane C. is the period of time when a strong stimulus can initiate a second action potential D. both a and b E. all of the above - ANS D- both a and b During saltatory conduction, action potentials jump from this: A. one astrocyte to another B. an axon to a dendrite C. one internode to another D. one node of Ranvier to another E. one microglia cell to another - ANS D- one node of Ranvier to another If the duration of the absolute refractory period of a nerve cell is 1millisecond (ms), this many action potentials are generated by a maximal stimulus in 1 second: A. 1 B. 10 C. 100 D. 1000 - ANS D-1000 These are all part of a chemical synapse except: A. presynaptic terminal B. synaptic cleft C. postsynaptic membrane D. connexons - ANS D- connexons Acetylcholinesterase, monoamine oxidase (MAO), and catechol-O-methyltransferase are this: A. neurotransmitters B. enzymes that break down neurotransmitters C. enzymes that act as neuromodulators D. enzymes that could produce an EPSP E. substances that could produce an IPSP - ANS B-enzymes that break down neurotransmitters This characteristic can be produced by an IPSP: A. local hyperpolarization B. decreased excitability of neuron C. increased permeability of postsynaptic membrane to K+ and Cl- ions D. all of these - ANS D- all of these When two action potentials arrive in very close succession at a single presynaptic terminal, this action occurs: A. an IPSP is produced B. the second action potential cancels the first C. spatial summation occurs D. temporal summation occurs - ANS D- temporal summation occurs This combination represents a convergent pathway in the nervous system: A. 1 presynaptic neuron synapses with 4 postsynaptic neurons B. 1 presynaptic neuron synapses with 1 postsynaptic neuron C. 3 presynaptic neurons synapse with 1 postsynaptic neuron D. an afferent neuron synapses with an association neuron - ANS C-3 presynaptic neurons synapse with 1 postsynaptic neuron This kind of nerve fiber would conduct action potentials the FASTEST: A. unmyelinated nerve fibers B. type A fibers C. type B fibers D. type C fibers - ANS B- type A fibers These are all parts of the brainstem except: A. medulla oblongata B. midbrain C. pons D. thalamus - ANS D- thalamus The pyramids are made of these kind of nerve tracts that are involved in the conscious control of this tissue: A. ascending, smooth muscle B. ascending, skeletal muscle C. descending, smooth muscle D. descending, cardiac muscle E. descending, skeletal muscle - ANS E- descending, skeletal muscle This part of the brain is (are) involved in visual reflexes and hearing and auditory reflexes: A. hypothalamus B. cerebral peduncles C. corpora quadrigemina D. medulla oblongata - ANS C- corpora quadrigemina This best describes the function of the hypothalamus: A. regulates autonomic nervous system functions B. regulates the release of hormones from the posterior pituitary C. regulates body temperature D. regulates food intake (hunger) and water intake (thirst) E. all of the above - ANS E- all of the above This structure plays a role in the onset of puberty and influences sleep-wake cycles and other biorythms: A. mammillary bodies B. pineal gland C. pituitary gland D. olives E. intermediate mass - ANS B- pineal gland Numerous folds found on the surface of each cerebral hemisphere are called this: A. sulci B. gyri C. folia D. fissure - ANS B- gyri The cerebellum has white matter arranged into branches of a tree called this: A. superior peduncles B. folia C. vermis D. arbor vitae - ANS D- arbor vitae This area is located in the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex: A. olfactory cortex B. visual cortex • C. primary motor cortex D. primary somatic sensory cortex E. primary auditory cortex - ANS C- primary motor cortex These are the major function of the cerebellum except: A. posture B. fine motor coordination C. learning complex movements D. regulates the extent of intentional movement E. mood modification - ANS E- mood modification This part of the brain is referred to as the "psychic cortex" and is important in abstract thought and judgement: A. frontal B. temporal C. occipital D. parietal E. insula - ANS B- temporal Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through this: A. subarachnoid space B. subdural space C. epidural space D. ventricles E. all of these F.a and d only - ANS F- a and d only This space is located in the center of the diencephalon between the two halves of the thalamus: A. lateral ventricles B. third ventricle C. cerebral (mesencephalic) aqueduct D. fourth ventricle - ANS B- third ventricle Cerebrospinal fluid passes into the blood by way of this: A. arachnoid granulations B. cerebral aqueduct C. lateral ventricles D. choroid plexus E. brachial plexus - ANS A- arachnoid granulations The endothelial cells with their tight junctions form the blood-brain barrier, which determines what substances can pass from the blood into the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal cord. A.True B.False - ANS A. True A patient has a blocked cerebral aqueduct. This defect is called aqueductal stenosis and is a common congenital problem. These symptoms would be observed: A. CSF levels decline B. enlarged fourth ventricle C. enlarged lateral ventricles D. enlarged third ventricle E. c and d - ANS E- c and d A cranial nerve may have these functions except: A. sensory B. somatic motor C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic - ANS D- sympathetic The following cranial nerves are all sensory except: A. olfactory B. optic C. oculomotor D. vestibulocohlear - ANS C- oculomotor Parts of this cranial nerve must be anesthetized for dental work: a. III (Oculomotor) b. IV (Trochlear) c. V (Trigeminal) d. VI (Abducens) e. VII (Facial) - ANS C- V ( Trigeminal) If you feel pain in your stomach, action potentials are traveling to your brain through this cranial nerve: A. V (Trigeminal) B. VII (Facial) C. IX (Glossopharyngeal) D. X (Vagus) E. XI (Accessory) - ANS D- X (Vagus) A lesion of the glossopharyngeal nerve will result in this: A. facial palsy B. hoarseness C. difficulty swallowing D. loss of taste E. c and d F. b and c - ANS E- c and d The telencephalon later develops into this brain structure: A. medulla oblongata B. cerebellum C. pons D. cerebrum E. thalamus - ANS D- cerebrum Blood reaches the brain through this blood vessel: A. internal carotid arteries B. vertebral arteries C. basilar arteries D. superior sagittal sinus E. a and b - ANS E- a and d This region of the cerebrum is important in voluntary motor function, motivation, aggression, the sense of smell and mood: A. frontal lobes B. parietal lobes C. temporal lobes D. occipital lobes - ANS A- frontal lobes This part of the brain is involved with olfactory reflexes and emotional responses to odors: A. inferior colliculi B. superior colliculi C. mammillary bodies D. pineal body E. pituitary gland - ANS C- mammillary bodies This large dural fold keeps the brain from moving around too freely by anchoring the brain to the crista galli: A. falx cerebelli B. falx cerebri C. tentorium cerebelli D. internal capsule - ANS B-Flax cerebri A patient fell in the bathtub and hit the back of her head. She developed a large subdural hematoma on the frontal lobe. This kind of injury is classified as: A. concussion B. open C. coup D. contrecoup - ANS D- contrecoup Olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory epithelium to the olfactory bulbs through this: A. external auditory meatus B. cribriform plate C. nasolacrimal duct D. mastoid sinus E. olfactory tract - ANS B- cribriform plate This is not considered one of the seven primary odors: A. floral B. minty C. sweet D. putrid E. musky - ANS C-Sweet This is responsible for visceral and emotional reactions to odors and has connections to the limbic system: A. intermediate olfactory area B. lateral olfactory area C. medial olfactory area D. olfactory bulb - ANS C- Medial olfactory area These cells proliferate to replace lost olfactory cells: A. basal cells B. mitral cells C. olfactory hairs D. tufted cells - ANS A- basal cells Sally walks into her anatomy lab and immediately notices a strong odor. After a few minutes however, she realizes that the smell is hardly noticeable anymore. This it the best explanation: A. receptors become saturated B. olfactory bulb neurons inhibit mitral (tufted) cells C. neurons in the intermediate olfactory area can inhibit further action potentials D. all of these - ANS D- all of these These papillae provide a rough surface on the tongue allowing it to manipulate food more easily: A. vallate B. fungiform C. foliate D. filiform - ANS D- filiform Taste (gustatory) cells have an average life span of about two months. A.True B.False - ANS B- false Taste from different regions of the tongue are carried by these cranial nerves except: A. facial (VII) B. glossopharyngeal (IX) C. vagus (X) D. hypoglossal (XII) - ANS D-hypoglossal (XII) This taste sensation is the most sensitive: A. bitter B. salty C. sweet D. umami - ANS A- bitter Umami (savory) tastes result in depolarization of cells by this mechanism: A. Na+ diffuses through Na+ channels of gustatory hairs B. diffusion of H+ into the cell through H+ channels C. amino acids bind to receptors on gustatory hairs D. a and b - ANS C- amino acids bind to receptors on gustatory hairs The colored (blue, brown, green) portion of the eye, as seen in an anterior view, is this: A. choroid B. ciliary C. body D. cornea E. iris - ANS E- iris Given these structures: 1. lacrimal canaliculi2. lacrimal ducts 3. lacrimal sac4. nasolacrimal duct5. punctaList the structures in the correct order that tears would flow through them after being produced in the lacrimal gland. A. 1,2,3,4,5 C. 2,5,1,3,4 B. 3,1,4,2,5 D. 4,5,1,2,3 - ANS C-2,5,1,3,4 This statement about aqueous humor is true: A. is found in the anterior compartment of the eye B. is produced by the ciliary processes C. helps maintain intraocular pressure D. provides nutrition for the cornea and lens E. all of these - ANS E- all of these Axons in the optic nerve from the right eye travel here: A. all to the right occipital lobe B. all to the left occipital lobe C. all to the thalamus D. most to the thalamus, some to the superior colliculus E. some to right occipital lobe and left occipital lobe - ANS D- most to the thalamus, some to the superior colliculus A person with an abnormally short eyeball (anterior to posterior) is _____________ and uses this kind of lens to correct his or her vision: A. nearsighted, concave lens B. nearsighted, convex lens C. farsighted, concave lens• D. farsighted, convex lens - ANS D- farsighted, convex lens These structures are all part of the external ear except: A. auricle (pinna) B. external acoustic meatus (external auditory canal) C. auditory (eustachian) tube D. eardrum (tympanic membrane) - ANS C-auditory (eustachian) tube The spiral organ (organ of Corti) is found within this: A. scala media (cochlear duct) B. scala vestibuli (vestibular duct) C. scala tympani (tympanic duct) D. vestibule•e. semicircular canals - ANS A-scala media (cochlear duct) A higher pitch of a sound is a result of an increase in the _____________ of the sound wave. A. frequency B. amplitude C. resonance D. both a and b - ANS A- frequency Damage to sensory structures in the semicircular canals primarily affects the ability to detect this: A. linear acceleration B. movement of the head in all directions C. the position of the head relative to the ground D. the position of the limbs - ANS B- movement of the head in all directions Given these parts of the inner ear: 1. oval window2. round window 3. scala tympani 4. scala vestibuli5. helicotremaThis is the correct order in which vibrations travel through the cochlea when the stapes is vibrated. A. 1,2,3,4,5 C. 2,4,5,3,1 B. 1,4,5,3,2 D. 3,2,4,5,1 - ANS B-1,4,5,3,2 The lens normally focuses light onto this: A. optic disc B. iris C. macula lutea D. cornea E. pupil - ANS C-macula lutea Given these ear bones (ossicles):1. incus2. malleus3. stapesThis is the correct order of the ear bones (ossicles) from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear.• A. 1,2,3 C. 2,1,3 B. 1,3,2 D. 2,3,1 - ANS C- 2,1,3 The following occurs during dark adaptation except:• A. rod function increases B. cone function decreases C. pupils dilate D. break down of rhodopsin - ANS D- break down of rhodopsin Movement of otoliths located in the macula, is translated by the brain into specific information about head position and acceleration. A.True B.False - ANS True This best describes the relationship between olfaction and gustation: A. gustatory hairs can also detect odorants B. olfactory hairs can also detect tastants C. olfactory sensations provide information about a substance that may be thought of as taste D. there is no relationship between the olfactory and gustatory senses - ANS C-olfactory sensations provide information about a substance that may be thought of as taste The following statements about corneal transplants are true except: A. easily accessible B. less immunologically active C. requires extensive circulation to the cornea D. one of the first organs to be transplanted - ANS C-requires extensive circulation to the cornea