100% satisfaction guarantee Immediately available after payment Both online and in PDF No strings attached 4.2 TrustPilot
logo-home
Exam (elaborations)

CCE Practice Exam 6 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)

Rating
-
Sold
-
Pages
21
Grade
A
Uploaded on
05-06-2024
Written in
2023/2024

CCE Practice Exam 6 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) The aspect of memory that is capable of storing a very large amount of information for a very brief period of time is referred to as ________ memory. A. short-term B. sensory C. primary D. secondary Procedural memory is to declarative memory as: A. echoic is to iconic. B. fact is to experience. C. explicit is to implicit. D. skill is to fact. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Piaget's preoperational stage of development? A. magical thinking B. insight learning C. finalism D. decentration In the preoperational stage, children exhibit centration, or an inability to mentally hold two dimensions at the same time. Decentration occurs in the concrete operational stage and contributes to the ability to conserve. The National Campaign on Teen Pregnancy (Kirby, 2001) concluded that which of the following has the strongest evidence of success for reducing teen pregnancy rates? A. abstinence-only programs B. service learning programs C. school condom distribution programs D. community-wide programs and initiatives According to the NCTP, there is now evidence that some programs do, in fact, reduce pregnancy rates. These include service learning programs (e.g., Teen Outreach and Reach for Health Community Service Learning) and comprehensive multi-modal programs (i.e., the Children's Aid Society-Carrera Program). Other authors have similarly concluded that multimodel programs that address a variety of developmental issues (including sexual behaviors) are most effective. Other programs - e.g., abstinence-only, school condom distribution, and community-wide programs - have not been found to have a substantial impact on pregnancy rates [Kirby, C. (2001). Emerging answers: Research findings on programs to reduce teen pregnancy. Summary. Retrieved August 11, 2002 from: .] Studies comparing bilingual and monolingual children on measures of inhibitory control and cognitive flexibility have generally found that: A. monolingual children outperform bilingual children on both measures. B. bilingual children outperform monolingual children on both measures. C. monolingual children outperform bilingual children on a measure of inhibitory control but bilingual children outperform monolingual children on a measure of cognitive flexibility. D. bilingual children outperform monolingual children on a measure of inhibitory control but monolingual children outperform bilingual children on a measure of cognitive flexibility. Phallic is to initiative vs. guilt as latency is to: A. autonomy vs. shame and doubt. B. identity vs. role confusion. C. industry vs. inferiority. D. generativity vs. stagnation. Freud's phallic and Erikson's initiative vs. guilt stages occur at about ages 3 to 6, while Freud's latency and Erikson's industry vs. inferiority stages occur at about ages 6 to 12. Eric Erikson proposed that an adolescent who doesn't successfully resolve the psychosocial conflict of identity versus identity confusion due to uncertainty about his/her sexual identity is likely to exhibit which of the following maladaptive responses? A. compulsion B. inertia C. disdain D. repudiation Repudiation is the maladaptive outcome for inadequate resolution of the identity vs. identity confusion conflict. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by an intellectual disability and extreme obesity. It is caused by which of the following chromosomal abnormalities? A. an extra chromosome B. a missing chromosome C. a chromosomal translocation D. a chromosomal deletion A 12-month old baby who has been classified as "insecure/ambivalent" is reunited with his mother in Ainsworth's "Strange Situation." Most likely, this baby will: A. hit or push his mother when she approaches and continue to cry after she picks him up. B. run away from his mother when she approaches but then cling to her when she picks him up. C. greet his mother but try to avoid her when she attempts to pick him up. D. ignore his mother intially but welcome her attempts to pick him up. Research using the Strange Situation has identified four distinct attachment patterns - secure, insecure/avoidant, insecure/ambivalent, and disorganized-disoriented. Information about these patterns is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. Research on the effects of divorce on the parent-child relationship has generally shown that, during the initial period following divorce, the relationship between the custodial parent and his/her child often changes. Specifically, during this period, the custodial mother most often: A. provides harsher but more inconsistent punishment. B. becomes overindulgent and overpermissive. C. spends more time with her child. D. is more concerned about the effectiveness of her parenting skills. In Piaget's model of cognitive development, which stage is associated with the development of object permanence? A. sensorimotor stage B. preoperational stage C. concrete operational stage D. formal operational stage Object permanence is an accomplishment associated with the sensorimotor stage. Basic skills are developed during this stage. Which of the following are related to the psychology of oppression? A. Strength, learning, knowledge, and cultural individuality. B. Perceptions, willpower, self-surrender, and power status. C. Apathy, individualism, loss of identity, and group think. D. Motivation, emotions, ambitions, and ideals. The psychology of oppression consists of: motivation, agency, perception, emotions, ambitions, ideals, reasoning, memory, aesthetics, and morals that accept the oppressive social system, desire it, identify with it, take it for granted as normal and even as ideal, take pleasure in it, defend it, and reject alternatives to it. Answers A, B and C are incorrect as none of these are related to the psychology of oppression other than perception. __________ predicts that the decision to remain or leave a relationship depends on the relative costs and rewards of that relationship. A. Social comparison theory B. Self-verification theory C. Social exchange theory D. Gain-loss theory Social exchange theory predicts that we're more likely to stay in a relationship when the rewards of the relationship exceed its costs. Lewin's field theory predicts that: A. human behavior is due more to physical than to psychological factors. B. a leader's power is directly affected by the characteristics of the task and environment. C. human behavior is a function of both the person and his/her environment. D. a group can be no more effective than its least effective member. According to Lewin's field theory, behavior is a function of the person and the environment. He expressed this relationship with the following formula: B = f(P, E). A manager engaged in long-range planning for his company is fairly confident about the strategic plan he has developed for the future but has some reservations about its acceptability. In this situation, the approach-avoidance conflict model predicts that, as it gets closer to the time to implement the plan: A. the positive aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the negative aspects decrease. B. the negative aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the positive aspects decrease. C. the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both increase in strength for the manager, but the negative aspects will increase more. D. the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both decrease in strength for the manager, but the positive aspects will decrease more. As distance from the goal decreases, the strength of both the "approach gradient" and the "avoidance gradient" increases. However, the strength of the avoidance gradient increases more rapidly, meaning that, as you get closer to the goal, the more likely that you will choose to avoid it. Scoring and interpretation of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) usually involves considering which of the following? A. form quality and content B. emotional control/lability C. needs and press D. general and specific attitudes Which of the following statements is true about the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition (SB5)? A. The Full Scale IQ, Verbal IQ, Nonverbal IQ, and Cognitive Indexes have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 16. B. The test is appropriate only for individuals ages 5 through 65. C. It provides scores on four factor indexes -- Working Memory, Verbal Comprehension, Processing Speed, and Perceptual Reasoning. D. Its development was based on a hierarchical model of intelligence that begins with a global "g" factor. In the 1979 case of Larry P. v. Riles, the judge ruled that IQ tests could no longer be used to: A. make hiring and other employment decisions. B. make college admission decisions. C. determine if older African American adults should be assigned a legal guardian. D. determine if African American children should be placed in special education classes. When using structural equation modeling, the "fit" between the proposed causal model and the obtained data can be evaluated using the chi-square test for goodness-of-fit. However, one problem with using the chi-square test for this purpose is that: A. it is very sensitive to the sample size. B. it is very insensitive to the sample size. C. it is difficult to interpret when there are more than three predictors. D. it is difficult to interpret when there are more than three criteria. The chi-square test is very sensitive to sample size, with large samples producing statistically significant results even when there is a small difference between the proposed model and the obtained data. Because the goal in using the chi-square test in this situation is to NOT obtain a significant difference (i.e., you want the data to fit the model), a large sample can be problematic. To use two or more categorical variables to predict status on a single categorical variable, you would use which of the following? A. path analysis B. logit analysis C. multiple regression analysis D. canonical correlation analysis Logit analysis is the appropriate multivariate technique in this situation. If you're familiar with the multivariate techniques described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question through the process of elimination. To determine if there is a statistically significant pattern in the effect of time on memory for a list of nonsense syllables, you have subjects memorize a list of 15 syllables and then test their memory at 15-minute intervals for the next two hours. The best technique for analyzing the data you have collected is: A. multiple regression. B. factorial ANOVA. C. orthogonal analysis. D. trend analysis. In this situation, you want to determine if there is a pattern (or "trend") in forgetting the list of nonsense syllables. Of the techniques listed, only trend analysis (a type of analysis of variance that is used when the IV is quantitative) would be useful for determining if there is a pattern or trend in subjects' memory for the list of nonsense syllables over time. To determine the degree of association between two continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients? A. eta B. biserial C. tetrachoric D. contingency The tetrachoric correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two normally distributed continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized. For example, it would be used to assess the degree of association between treatment outcome and symptom severity, when both variables were originally measured on a continuous scale but were then dichotomized so that outcome is categorized as either successful or unsuccessful and symptom severity is categorized as either mild or severe. The Bonferroni test helps control the experimentwise error rate by: A. controlling the total number of comparisons that can be made. B. reducing the level of significance for each comparison. C. permitting individual comparisons only after the omnibus test has produced significant results. D. requiring that all comparisons be conducted as two-tailed tests. A researcher wants to compare the effects of four different prevention programs on willingness to use safe-sex practices for sexually active male and female adolescents. Participants will be randomly assigned to one of the four programs and six months later will be asked to indicate if they engaged in safe sex all of the time, some of the time, or never. The appropriate statistical test for analyzing the obtained data is which of the following? A. one-way ANOVA B. two-way ANOVA C. multiple-sample chi-square test D. single-sample chi-square test This study has two independent variables (prevention program and gender) and one dependent variable (safe-sex practices). While the dependent variable is actually measured on an ordinal scale, no ordinal tests are listed in the responses. It is always possible to treat an ordinal variable as a nominal one but it is not acceptable to treat it as an interval or ratio variable. Of the tests listed in the answer, the multiple-sample chi-square is the best choice. In the context of factor analysis, "specificity" refers to: A. the proportion of variability in a test that has not been explained by the factor analysis. B. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by a single factor. C. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by all of the identified factors. D. the proportion of variability in a test that is attributable to measurement error. In factor analysis, a test's specificity is the variability that is due to factors that are specific to the test and not measured by any other test included in the analysis -- i.e., variability that is not accounted for by the identified factors. You conduct an item analysis of the items you plan to include in a new test of computer knowledge. You obtain a p value of .85 for item #47. This indicates that this item: A. is difficult. B. is easy. C. has poor discrimination. D. has good discrimination. The closer the p value is to 1.0, the easier the item since this means that a large proportion of examinees answered the item correctly. When factors in a factor matrix are "oblique," this means that: A. the correlation coefficient for any two factors is equal to zero. B. the correlation coefficient for any two factors is greater than zero. C. the identified factors explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores. D. the identified factors do not explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores. In the context of factor analysis, oblique means "correlated." Which of the following would NOT be useful for increasing a test's reliability coefficient? A. increasing the sample variance B. ensuring that the average p value is close to .50 C. increasing the heterogeneity of the content domain D. increasing the number of items from 50 to 100 When using the split-half method to estimate the reliability of a 100-item speed test: A. the split of the test into halves should be done in a random way. B. the test should be split so that the first 50 items are grouped together and the second 50 items are grouped together. C. the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items. D. the resulting reliability coefficient will underestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items. For the exam, be sure to remember that split-half and other forms of internal consistency reliability overestimate the reliability of a speed test. Item response theory is considered a useful technique for constructing all of the following types of tests except: A. criterion-keyed tests. B. tailored (computerized) tests. C. diagnostic or employment screening tests. D. teacher-made (classroom) achievement tests. Use of item response theory for test construction requires constructing an "item response curve" for each item. To do so, a large sample of examinees is needed, which would probably not be available for classroom tests. The other types of tests listed have been identified as good candidates for item response theory. Research on the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy with older adults has found that it is:

Show more Read less
Institution
CCE Practice
Course
CCE Practice










Whoops! We can’t load your doc right now. Try again or contact support.

Written for

Institution
CCE Practice
Course
CCE Practice

Document information

Uploaded on
June 5, 2024
Number of pages
21
Written in
2023/2024
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers

Subjects

Get to know the seller

Seller avatar
Reputation scores are based on the amount of documents a seller has sold for a fee and the reviews they have received for those documents. There are three levels: Bronze, Silver and Gold. The better the reputation, the more your can rely on the quality of the sellers work.
Jumuja Liberty University
View profile
Follow You need to be logged in order to follow users or courses
Sold
548
Member since
4 year
Number of followers
415
Documents
2654
Last sold
3 weeks ago

3.9

115 reviews

5
60
4
15
3
20
2
4
1
16

Recently viewed by you

Why students choose Stuvia

Created by fellow students, verified by reviews

Quality you can trust: written by students who passed their tests and reviewed by others who've used these notes.

Didn't get what you expected? Choose another document

No worries! You can instantly pick a different document that better fits what you're looking for.

Pay as you like, start learning right away

No subscription, no commitments. Pay the way you're used to via credit card and download your PDF document instantly.

Student with book image

“Bought, downloaded, and aced it. It really can be that simple.”

Alisha Student

Frequently asked questions