ANCC prep test Part 1 with correct answers 2024

Correct answer: Amblyopia has no effect on childhood development. This statement is not accurate. Amblyopia is detrimental to childhood development. It is also detrimental to education achievement and self-esteem. - answer-Which of the following statements about the complications of amblyopia is not accurate? check all answers that apply It is currently believed that the sensitive period for amblyopia is younger than 10 years of age. The most common reason for failure of amblyopia therapy is non-compliance. Amblyopia has no effect on childhood development. Amblyopia causes monocular vision loss. lazy eye - answer-What is Amblyopia - Correct Answer: oral corticosteroid Pramoxine, topical anesthetics, topical steroids, and oral antihistamines are normal treatment for pruritus. However, if the pruritus is more severe and there is swelling in the area, an oral corticosteroid would be most effective. - answer-You have a patient whose pruritic skin condition is manifesting with severe pruritus and swelling. Which of the following treatments would be most effective for this patient? Pramoxine oral corticosteroid oral antihistamine any topical anesthetic Correct Answer: The NP must respect confidentiality but it does not have to be formally discussed with the patient. Confidentiality requires that the provider discuss confidentiality issues with patients. They must establish consent, and clarify any questions about disclosure of information. - answer-The patient and his family have a right to assume that information given to the NP will not be disclosed. This means all of the following EXCEPT: Verbal information is covered by confidentiality. Written information is covered by confidentiality. The individual's right to privacy is respected when responding to a request for a patient's medical record. The NP must respect confidentiality but it does not have to be formally discussed with the patient. Correct answer: asking the patient to clench his or her teeth Part of inspecting the face and head of a patient is testing the masseter muscle. During an extra-oral examination, stand near the patient and visually inspect and bilaterally palpate the muscle. Place the fingers of each hand over the muscle and ask the patient to clench his or her teeth several times. - answer-You would test a patient's masseter muscle by doing which of the following? palpating the scalp tapping on the forehead asking the patient to stand quickly asking the patient to clench his or her teeth The Correct answer is: Decrease in systemic vascular resistance Calcium channel blockers depress the rate of discharge from the sinoatrial node and conduction velocity through the atrioventricular node, causing a decrease in heart rate. In addition, they relax the coronary and systemic arteries, producing vasodilatation and decreased myocardial contractility. - answer-The nurse practitioner has a patient on verapamil (Calan SR) and is monitoring the patient for therapeutic effects. He understands that with verapamil you should assess for: decrease in systemic vascular resistance increase in heart rate decrease in ventricular premature beats increase in blood pressure Correct answer: amenorrhea This is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, along with fatigue, nausea, breast changes, urinary frequency, and a slight increase in body temperature. The other choices are probable signs of pregnancy. - answer-Which of the following would be considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy? amenorrhea Goodell's sign Hegar's sign ballottement Correct Answer: Anti-inflammatory drugs Braces Corticosteroid injections The x-ray image above would be considered an example of one knee with a knee replacement and the other with osteoarthritis. The treatments for osteoarthritis would include: Anti-inflammatory drugs Pain relievers Weight loss Exercise Corticosteroid injections Acupuncture Supplements such as glucosamine Braces Physical/occupational therapy Surgery - answer-Which of the following treatments would be considered correct for the osteoarthritis on the left in the x-ray image above? check all answers that apply Anti-inflammatory drugs Braces Corticosteroid injections Amputation Correct answer: restrictive covenant A restrictive covenant is a promise not to compete. Specifically, a restrictive covenant is a clause that restricts an employee from practicing within a set number of miles from an employer's business for a set period of time after the employee leaves the employer's business. - answer-The clause in an employment contract for nurse practitioners that limits an employee from practicing within a set number of miles from an employer's business for a set period of time after leaving the employer's business is which of the following? restrictive covenant bonus formula termination clause none of the above The Correct answer is: The ethical behavior of nurses has been defined for professional nursing in an American Practice Act policy statement The ethical behavior of nurses was defined by the American Nurses Association and not the American Practice Act. The remaining answer choices are part of ethical decision-making process of a nurse practitioner. - answer-Which of the following is NOT part of the ethical decision making process for the nurse practitioner? Moral concepts such as advocacy, accountability, loyalty, caring, compassion, and human dignity are the foundations of ethical behavior. Duty to help others, beneficence, is a foundational component of ethical behavior. Ethical behavior incorporates respect for the individual and his or her autonomy. The ethical behavior of nurses has been defined for professional nursing in an American Practice Act policy statement. Correct answer: unintentional injuries The leading cause of death in children 12 months to 9 years is unintentional injuries. The leading cause of death in infants younger than 12 months is congenital anomalies. - answer-The leading cause of death in children 12 months to 9 years is: heart disease unintentional injuries congenital anomalies cancer Correct Answer: Both B and C Cephalosporins and penicillins would be considered the first most frequent cause of allergic reactions. Sulfonamides would be considered the second most frequent cause of allergic reactions. - answer-Correct answer: unintentional injuries The leading cause of death in children 12 months to 9 years is unintentional injuries. The leading cause of death in infants younger than 12 months is congenital anomalies. Correct Answer: PSA test lipid profile to detect hyperlipidemia Secondary prevention measures include activities provided to identify and treat asymptomatic persons who have risk factors for a given disease. Examples include screening for pre-clinical evidence of cancer, blood pressure measurement to detect hypertension and lipid profile to detect hyperlipidemia. - answer-Which of the following would be a secondary prevention measure for a 56-year-old male who has type 2 diabetes? check all answers that apply lifestyle modification education PSA test lipid profile to detect hyperlipidemia prescribing glucophage to control his diabetes Correct answer: 50% At least 50% of persons with Epstein-Barr virus mononucleosis develop splenomegaly. Hepatomegaly develops in about 10% of cases. - answer-In a person with Epstein-Barr virus mononucleosis what are the chances that this person will develop splenomegaly? 10% 25% 50% 85% Correct answer: regular exercise Prevention of hemorrhoidal engorgement and inflammation is the best treatment for hemorrhoids. This includes such strategies as weight control, high-fiber diet, regular exercise and increased fluid intake. Treatment for acute hemorrhoid flare-ups includes the use of astringents and topical corticosteroids, sitz baths, and analgesics. - answer-Which of the following would be the least likely treatment to be used for an acute hemorrhoid flare-up? regular exercise astringents sitz baths analgesics Correct Answer: age history of STDs Age is a factor since, as a woman ages, her fertility decreases. The tendency to delay pregnancy until a woman is in her 30s and 40s means that fertility is naturally declining when pregnancy is first attempted. Increasing rates of STDs may also affect a woman's ability to become pregnant. - answer-Which of the following factors are most likely to be associated with infertility? check all answers that apply age history of STDs heredity menarche at an early age Correct Answer: noise trauma Noise trauma is the second most common cause of hearing loss. Also termed acoustic trauma, it can be related to a single, very loud noise or by exposure to a noise at a lower decibel over a long period of time. Sounds louder the 85 dB are potentially damaging to the cochlea, especially with prolonged exposure such as having worked in a factory for over 20 years. - answer-Elmer is a client who comes to you complaining of difficulty hearing. He works in an automotive plant with loud machinery in use at all times. He has been exposed to this environment for 25 years. This supports a diagnosis of which of the following? noise trauma otosclerosis presbycusis ototoxicity Otosclerosis - an inherited hearing disorder that causes hearing loss due to ears inability to amplify sound Presbycusis - age related hearing loss Ototoxicity - ingesting chemicals or certain medications that can adversely affect the way the inner ear functions. Some drugs can specifically effect the cochlea nerve, impairing hearing and affecting balance - answer-What does otosclerosis mean? What is presbycusis mean? What does ototoxicity mean? Correct Answer: Ellis III An Ellis III fracture is a full-thickness fracture of the tooth. It involves the enamel, dentin, and pulp. Pink tissue or blood is seen in the fracture. This patient would need a referral to an oral surgeon for probable tooth extraction or root canal. - answer-You have a patient who has tripped and fallen on her face and has a tooth fracture. Upon examination you observe a full fracture of the tooth involving the enamel, dentin, and pulp. Pink tissue is seen in the fracture. This fracture would be classified as which of the following? check all answers that apply avulsion Ellis I Ellis II Ellis III Type I fracture Correct answer: deficient intake of calcium The FRAX algorithm does not take into account certain other risk factors such as deficient intake of calcium. The algorithm includes age, gender, smoking, three or more alcoholic drinks per day, rheumatoid arthritis, low BMI, prolonged corticosteroid use, secondary osteoporosis, parent with a hip fracture, and BMD. Risk factors that are not considered include deficient intake of calcium, activity level, risk for falling, intake of vitamin D, and caffeine. - answer-All of the following are risk factors in the FRAX algorithm for fracture risk assessment EXCEPT: deficient intake of calcium prolonged corticosteroid use parent with a hip fracture low BMI Correct Answer: miliaria Miliaria or milia (also known as "prickly heat") involves multiple yellow or white 1-2 mm papules located mainly on the forehead, cheeks, and nose. It is most common in neonates and with overheating. Resolution is spontaneous. - answer-Of the following pediatric skin lesions, which one is most common in neonates with overheating? erythema toxicum seborrheic dermatitis nevus flammeus miliaria Correct Answer: gabapentin Of the medications listed, phenytoin, primidone, and carbamazepine are all known increase the failure of hormonal contraceptives. Only gabapentin is not known to reduce efficacy of hormonal contraceptives. - answer-The FNP has a 21-year-old female patient with a history of seizures. She is married and taking oral contraceptives until she is ready to start a family. Which of the following medications is not known to reduce the efficacy of hormonal contraceptives? phenytoin primidone carbamazepine gabapentin Correct Answer: Isoflavones The herbal supplements which are derived from soy beans would be Isoflavones. This supplement has Estrogen-like effects. - answer-Which of the herbal supplements would be derived from soy beans and can have Estrogen-like effects? St. John's wort Isoflavones Glucosamine Kava Kava Correct Answer: TMJ dysfunction TMJ dysfunction is not an early sign of acceleration/deceleration injuries of the cervical spine. It is a late symptom along with anxiety, limited tolerance to ADLs, depression, and disequilibrium. - answer-Early signs and symptoms of acceleration/deceleration injuries of the cervical spine (whiplash) include all but which of the following? headache neck stiffness TMJ dysfunction vertigo Correct Answer: Both B and C The above image would be considered an example of an MRI of the human kidney. Some of the types of benign masses could include: Hemangioma Hematoma Cysts Angiomyolipoma Oncocytoma Renal adenoma - answer-This question showed a CT image of a kidney. Which of the following might be considered a form of benign mass that could potentially be diagnosed by the procedure above? Diabetes mellitus Hemangioma Hematoma Both B and C Correct Answer: decreased mental competence The elderly are vulnerable to disease for reasons mentioned in all of the choices except this one. Just because a person is older does not mean that they have decreased mental competence. Mental competence has nothing to do with physiological vulnerability to disease. - answer-The elderly are more physiologically vulnerable to disease for all but which of the following reasons? decreased physiologic reserve decreased mental competence less flexible homeostatic processes less effective body defenses Correct answer: salmon macular rash polyserositis splenomegaly leukocytosis The acute febrile form of JRA presents with all of these symptoms. It is one of the three forms of JRA. The other two forms are polyarticular pattern JRA and pauciarticular disease. - answer-The acute febrile form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) presents with which of the following symptoms? check all answers that apply salmon macular rash polyserositis splenomegaly chronic pain and swelling of joints five or more joints are involved leukocytosis Correct Answer: MRI The "gold standard" test for joint damage would be considered the MRI. Some of the other maneuvers which might be used when the nurse practitioner is assessing the patient could include: Drawer Sign Finklestein's Test McMurray's Test Lachman's Sign - answer-Of the following, which would be considered the "gold standard" test for joint damage? X-ray Ultrasound CT-scan MRI Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) triggers that are affecting the asthma effectiveness of medications These are important determinations for each follow-up visit. You should also determine that the client is taking the medication properly and discuss an action plan. - answer-At each follow-up visit with your patient who has asthma you should determine which of the following? check all answers that apply Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) diet triggers that are affecting the asthma blood count effectiveness of medications The Correct answer is: Water intoxication Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) promotes reabsorption of water in the renal tubules, which can lead to water intoxication. Other signs of this are behavioral changes and disorientation. - answer-A 6-year-old patient has been discharged from the hospital to home on DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) for diabetes insipidus after removal of a pituitary tumor. The nurse practitioner (NP) notices that the child is lethargic and has 4+ deep tendon reflexes on examination. The NP suspects: interaction with OTC cough medicine water intoxication increased vasopressor effect noncompliance with therapy Correct Answer: The patient is 80-years-old or older and unable to comprehend the complex medical facts. All patients are entitled to medical information regardless of age. The nurse practitioner may treat in any of the other circumstances listed in the remaining answer choices. - answer-The Family Nurse Practitioner has the duty to disclose certain information to the patient as part of the informed consent process. Exceptions to this duty would include all of the following EXCEPT: It is a definite emergency situation. The healthcare provider believes that the information would be harmful to the patient and invokes the therapeutic privilege. The patient has waived the right to receive informed consent. The patient is 80-years-old or older and unable to comprehend the complex medical facts. Correct Answer: Consent. Procedures and tests require patient consent before they can take place. Since the patient is a conscious adult, the patient gives consent. This is the first step. - answer-A 23 year old patient is conscious and requires an x-ray for a differential diagnosis of a broken arm. What is the first step to the process? Prepare the machine. Position the patient. Consent. Inform radiology. Correct answer: intense itching Intense itching is a symptom of pediculosis pubis which is a parasitic infection of the genital region caused by the crab louse. Other symptoms include difficulty sleeping and irritability or distraction related to itching. - answer-Which of the following is most consistent with a diagnosis of pediculosis pubis infestation? diarrhea moderate fever intense itching constipation Correct Answer: self-actualization Maslow developed a hierarchy of needs in which some needs are more important than others and must be met before other needs can be considered. The most basic needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs are survival needs: water, food, sleep. The highest is achieving potential which is known as self-actualization. - answer-The highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is which of the following? self-actualization self-esteem love and belonging safety and security hyperopia - answer-Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)? African descent advancing age diabetes mellitus hyperopia Correct Answer: hearing via bone conduction impaired malfunction is in the cochlea, the cochlear portion of the eighth cranial nerve, or both These are two characteristics of sensorineural hearing loss. The other three choices are related to conductive hearing loss. - answer-Which of the following are associated with sensorineural hearing loss? check all answers that apply decreased hearing via air conduction interference of transmission of sound through the external auditory canal interference of transmission of vibrations from the tympanic membrane through the ossicular chain to the oval window hearing via bone conduction impaired malfunction is in the cochlea, the cochlear portion of the eighth cranial nerve, or both 1. Poor hygiene 2. The use of razors on the skin 3. Break in the skin tissue 4. Diabetes mellitus - answer-What are the 4 most common predisposing factors for the bacterial infection folliculitis? Correct Answer: fecal occult blood test at home with collection of two samples from three consecutive specimens The American Cancer Society colorectal cancer screening guidelines recommend a fecal occult blood test at home with collection of two samples from three consecutive specimens. If there is an initial positive finding then a colonoscopy should be done. - answer-The American Cancer Society colorectal cancer screening guidelines recommend which of the following as a screening test for colorectal cancer? fecal occult blood test at home with collection of two samples from three consecutive specimens fecal occult blood test obtained via the digital rectal examination in the provider's office toilet bowl fecal occult blood test digital rectal examination Correct Answer: Inspection of the eye, sclera, and conjunctiva for the presence of any foreign bodies. Patient's temperature The picture above would be considered chalazion, which is a chronic lipogranulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland. When performing a physical examination on this patient, the following should be done: Inspection of the eye, sclera, and conjunctiva for the presence of any foreign bodies. Patient's temperature Check the eyelid for any masses or tenderness Check the patient for any preauricular adenopathy - answer-The physical examination for the eye condition in the picture above would include which of the following? check all answers that apply Inspection of the eye, sclera, and conjunctiva for the presence of any foreign bodies. Patient's temperature Draw a CBC CT scan of the head Correct answer: MAO inhibitors MAO inhibitors should be avoided for those with bulimia. They have a potential for severe food interactions and hypertensive crisis. - answer-Your 20-year-old female patient has bulimia. You might manage her condition by all of the following EXCEPT: MAO inhibitors SSRIs TCAs Cognitive behavioral therapy Correct answer: presbyopia Presbyopia is the natural loss of accommodation that is caused by aging. Hyperopia is the inability to see near objects clearly because of failure to accommodate. Myopia is the inability to see distant objects. Glaucoma is a disease of the eye. - answer-You have a 60-year-old male patient who has some vision loss. You tell him that there is a certain amount of normal vision loss associated with aging. This type of vision loss is known as which of the following? hyperopia presbyopia glaucoma myopia Correct answer: Bowen's family systems theory Bowen's family systems theory explains current family situations in terms of past relationships and family histories. It connects one's past family experiences with current behaviors and suggests that multiple factors interacting across time influence family functioning. - answer-The theory that explains current family situations in terms of past relationships and family histories is which of the following? Maslow's hierarchy of needs Piaget's cognitive development theory Erikson's stages of psychosocial development Bowen's family systems theory Correct answer: dicloxacillin Dicloxacillin is used for impetigo. It is not used for killing lice. All of the other choices are pediculicides. - answer-Which of the following drugs is NOT a pediculicide? pyrethrin with piperonyl butoxide 0.3% dicloxacillin permethrin 1% cream rinse lindane Correct Answer: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) The image above would be considered an example of screws in a patient's esophagus. Infants and children are more prone to this type problem. If an object actually reaches the gastrointestinal tract, it may pass spontaneously. Only about 10-20 percent of these cases actually required removal of the objects by an EGD. - answer-which would be the typical procedure that would more than likely be used to remove the screws from the patient with screws found in the esophagus during an x-ray image? Laparoscopy Abdominal surgery Colonoscopy Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) Correct Answer: Pericarditis Some of the complications of rheumatoid arthritis would be considered: Pericarditis Uveitis Scleritis Vasculitis Increased risk of certain malignancies - answer-Rheumatoid arthritis would be considered a systemic autoimmune disorder that is more common in the female patients. Of the following, which might be considered a complication of this disorder? Pericarditis Nausea/vomiting Severe headaches Rash over the torso Correct Answer: Facial features continue to develop Digestive tract/sensory organs begin to develop Weighs about 1/30 of an ounce The above image would be considered a 3D rendered human fetus at 2 months that should be seen on the ultrasound. By or during month 2, the embryo should: Facial features continue to develop Digestive tract/sensory organs begin to develop The embryo would be approximately 1 inch long and weigh about 1/30 of an ounce. The neural tube which contains the brain, spinal cord, and other neural tissues is well developed. The cartilage is starting to be replaced by bone. The heart beat can be detected by about 6 weeks. By 2 months, the embryo is now referred to as a fetus. - answer-Which of the following would be considered correct for the development of the embryo at 2 months? check all answers that apply Facial features continue to develop Digestive tract/sensory organs begin to develop Weighs about 1/30 of an ounce Is approximately 6 inches in length The Correct answer is: Later disease presentation often includes iron deficiency anemia. Colorectal cancer is the second leading cause of cancer in the United States. A person with this disease is usually asymptomatic until the disease is quite advanced. In advanced colorectal cancer, the patient will have iron deficiency anemia and vague abdominal complaints. The mass is most often beyond the examiners digit during the rectal exam. - answer-ou are treating a 66-year-old woman who you suspect has colorectal cancer. The nurse practitioner knows that which of the following is TRUE concerning this disease? Most colorectal cancers are found during rectal examination. Early manifestations of this disease include maladaptive deficiency anemia. Later disease presentation often includes iron deficiency anemia. Early manifestations of this disease include severe abdominal pain. Correct Answer: rubella The pathogenicity of the rubella organism is considered intermediate. The other three choices are highly pathogenic. They have the greatest ability to produce disease. - answer-Which of the following diseases is caused by an organism with the least pathogenicity of the choices given? rubella rabies rhinovirus varicella Correct Answer: Relapse is highest after the second month after discontinuation of treatment. Relapse is highest in the first 2 months after discontinuation of treatment. Maintenance therapy should be considered as with any chronic illness. - answer-Which of the following statements about depression therapy is incorrect in regard to the length of pharmacological intervention in depression? Therapy should be a minimum of 9 - 12 months. The acute phase of treatment to bring symptoms under control and into remission lasts up to 3 months. Relapse is highest after the second month after discontinuation of treatment. Medication should be continued for a minimum of 6 months after depression remission is achieved. Correct answer: wax impaction This is something that you might find during the examination of a person with conductive hearing loss. The person usually speaks softly and the Weber lateralizes to the poor ear. - answer-You have assessed your patient who complains of hearing loss. You have determined that it is a conductive hearing loss which involves which of the following? person speaks loudly wax impaction Weber lateralizes to the better ear non-specific Rinne findings Correct Answer: 1200 cells/mm3 with 90 - 95% neutrophils Lumbar puncture should be part of the valuation of a febrile younger child who has an altered neurological examination. Typical CSF response in bacterial meningitis includes a median WBC of 1200 cells/mm3 with 90 - 95% neutrophils. - answer-You have a 4-year-old child patient with bacterial meningitis. The typical CSF response in bacterial meningitis includes a median WBC count of which of the following? 1500 cells/mm3 with 85 - 95% neutrophils 500 cells/mm3 with 80 - 85% neutrophils 1200 cells/mm3 with 90 - 95% neutrophils 1800 cells/mm3 with 80 - 85% neutrophils