DANB PRACTICE TEST FOR THE DENTAL ASSISTANT TEST WITH CORRECT ANSWERS 2024.

A permanent dentition consists of how many teeth? A. 28 B. 30 C. 32 D. 26 - answer-32 Which teeth are sometimes called the "eye" teeth? Premolars Canines Incisors Bicuspids - answer-Canines Which proximal surface of a tooth is closest toward the midline of the body? Occlusal Facial Incisal Mesial - answer-Mesial A permanent dentition consists of how many premolars? 4 8 12 None - answer-8 When a mouth is divided into fourths, the parts are referred to as: Quadrant Arch Sextant Posterior/Anterior - answer- Using the universal system of tooth designation, what tooth is #12 Maxillary right canine Maxillary left first premolar Maxillary left canine Maxillary right first premolar - answer-Maxillary left first premolar Using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording. Mandibular right central incisor Maxillary left second premolar Mandibular left central incisor Maxillary right second premolar - answer-Maxillary left second premolar What is the structure that connects cementum to the alveolar bone? Dentin Pulp Periodontal ligament Enamel - answer-Periodontal ligament A gold crown is marked by: Horizontal lines through the crown Vertical lines through the crown Diagonal lines through the crown A solid colored crown - answer-Diagonal lines through the crown A dental assistant is preparing to chart a new patient's treatment plan for the doctor. Treatment provided in a previous dental office should be charted in what color? Black Blue Red Green - answer-Black Two red vertical lines drawn between the upper central incisors on a patient chart would indicate: Extraction of a mesiodens Diastema Drifting Fixed bridge - answer-Diastema The recommended technique for determining a patient's pulse or respiration rate is to: Measure for 15 seconds, then multiply by 4 Measure for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2 Measure for 60 seconds It is not necessary to record a patient's respiration and pulse - answer-Measure for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2 In order to determine how much to inflate a blood pressure cuff for an accurate reading, a dental assistant measures the patient's BPM brachial pulse rate and adds ______ to determine the inflation level in mm Hg. 20 30 40 50 - answer-40 An average adult respiration rate is ____ breaths per minute 10-20 15-25 18-30 25-35 - answer-10-20 What is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult? 40-70 60-100 70-120 80-130 - answer-60-100 bpm Standard practice provides, and some state laws require, that a signed privacy policy be kept in a patient's file for a minimum of _______ year(s). 1 2 3 None - answer-None Which of the following is not a part of a dental examination? Radiographs Soft tissue inspection Impressions Health history review - answer-Health history review What classification of decay is located on the gingival third on the facial or lingual surfaces of teeth? Class IV Class V Class II Class VI - answer-Class V While examining a patient, a dentist says he sees Class IV decay. Which of the following teeth would he be looking at? Molars Incisors Premolars Wisdom teeth - answer-Incisors While examining a patient, a dentist says he sees Class IV decay. Which of the following teeth would he be looking at? CEJ DEJ CDJ Margin - answer-CEJ What type of tissue covers alveolar bone, attaching to the teeth at the margin of the gumlines? Free gingivae Epithelial attachment Mastication mucosa Lining mucosa - answer-Epithelial attachment What is the tissue that divides the nasal cavity into 2 parts? Ala Philtrum Septum Zygomatic arch - answer-Septum Which nerve is the primary nerve for the mouth?Trigeminal Nasopalatine Mylohyoid Buccal - answer-Trigeminal The pituitary gland is part of what body system? Lymphatic Nervous Endocrine Cardiovascular - answer-Endocrine What position places the chair back until the patient is almost lying down? Supine Subsupine Trendelenburg Upright - answer-Supine What is the best method of identifying working positions by a dental auxiliary? Ergonomics Clock concept Patient cooperation Range of motion - answer-Clock concept When transferring an instrument to the dentist, the dental assistant should: Transfer the instrument with the sharp edge pointing toward them . Transfer the instrument with the working end facing toward the dentist Transfer the instrument with the working end facing themselves Transfer the instrument with the working end facing down - answer-Transfer the instrument with the working end facing themselves When retrieving an instrument from a right-handed operator, the assistant uses the ______________ finger(s) of their left hand. Last 2 First 1 Last 1 First 1 - answer-Last 2 Most of the time, a dental assistant will be working in what "time zone" during a treatment procedure? 7-9 11-1 2-4 4-6 - answer-2-4 Which chair has a foot bar for support? Dental chair Assistant's stool Operator's stool All of the above - answer-Assistants stool The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly _______ to the tooth being prepared. Occlusal Lingual Buccal Distal - answer-Distal What isolation method is appropriate for one or several teeth? Cotton roll Dry angles Dental dam High volume evacuator suction - answer-Dental dam An adult male arrives for a scheduled root canal and crown appointment. The dental assistant prepares the instrument tray and equipment when he is seated. What size hole punch is needed for premolar and canines on a dental dam? No. 1 No. 2 No. 3 No. 5 - answer-No. 3 When removing a dry cotton roll from the mouth: Moisten with water before removal Grip firmly with cotton pliers Retract the lip Use the suction to assist in removal - answer-Moisten with water before removal Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2? Anemia Pregnancy Common cold Emphysema - answer-Anemia What part of the gas machine houses the nitrous oxide and oxygen to combine them together for the patient to breathe? Gas hose Reservoir bag Fowmeter Mask - answer-Reservoir bag Nitrous oxide has been used on a patient. For how many minutes afterward should the patient remain on 100% Oxygen?. 1 3 5 10 - answer-5 Which of the following is an approved method by the Center for Disease Control for re-capping a used needle? Using a recapping device Single-handed swoop Both None - answer-Both A long needle, 1 5/8" in length, is used for what type of injections? Infiltration Periodontal ligament Palatial block Mandibular block - answer-Mandibular block What type of injection involves the tissues near the apex of a tooth? Block Nerve block Periodontal ligament injection Infiltration - answer-Infiltration Which of the following is NOT a health concern when it comes to selecting the appropriate form of local anesthetic? Pregnancy Joint replacement Elevated blood pressure Cardiovascular disease - answer-Joint replacement What is added to an anesthetic agent to lengthen the effect by decreasing blood flow? Vasoconstrictors Vasodilators Lidocaine Septocaine - answer-Vasoconstrictors How long should topical anesthetic be applied to the mucosa prior to an injection? 30-45 seconds 45-60 seconds 2-5 minutes 5-10 minutes - answer-2-5 minutes What may be added to burs in order to shorten preparation time by improving cutting ability? Titanium Coarse grit coating Diamond stones Inward slope - answer-Diamond stones Which of the following burs would be appropriate for a crown-prep setup tray? Round bur Flame-shaped bur Round end taper bur Pear bur - answer-Flame-shaped bur Low speed handpieces are used for: Prophy angles Round bur Finishing bur All of the above - answer-Prophy angles What type of handpiece operates at speeds of up to 450,000 rpm? Slow speed High speed Optic light Laboratory - answer-High speed A 16 year old female has an appointment for an MOD amalgam on #14. What instrument is used to carve amalgam on the occlusal surface of a tooth? Excavator Condenser Burnisher Diskoid/cleoid - answer-Diskoid/cleoid Which of the following is not a step in a sealant placement? Isolation Preparation Fluoridation Curing - answer-Fluoridation Which of the following would a bristled brush style prophy angle NOT be appropriate to use on? Pits Fissures Dentin Enamel - answer-Dentin What type of stain is on the surface of enamel and my be removed through hand scaling or rubber cup polishing? Extrinsic Endogenous Intrinsic Exogenous - answer-Extrinsic A dental assistant who is approved to perform expanded functions prepares to perform coronal polishing on a patient after the hygienist has done the scaling. What is done to ensure the prevention of removing small amounts of enamel during coronal polishing? a. Using a mild grit paste b. Selective polishing c. Air polishing d. Prophylaxis - answer-Selective polishing A gingival retraction cord: a. Extends the impression area slightly below the finished preparation b. Extends the impression 2mm below the gingival margin c. Assures no gingival overgrowth in areas of crown preparation d. Prevents impression material from entering into the sulcus - answer-Extends the impression area slightly below the finished preparation Which of the following can help prevent hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure? a. Using a wider retraction cord b. Using a poly-cotton blend retraction cord c. Using a 100% cotton retraction cord d. Saturating the retraction cord in astringent and vasoconstrictor - answer-Saturating the retraction cord in astringent and vasoconstrictor Which of the following would contraindicate a partial denture? a. The need to replace several teeth in one quadrant b. Periodontal disease which may threaten remaining teeth c. A patient that cannot tolerate the treatment procedures of a fixed bridge d. Good oral hygiene - answer-Periodontal disease which may threaten remaining teeth Which of the following is the metal extension on a partial denture, which rests on the alveolar ridge and holds the artificial teeth? a. Retainer b. Framework c. Saddle d. Rests - answer-Saddle When taking a shade for a dental appliance, all of the following are correct EXCEPT: a. Teeth should be wet during match b. Teeth should be dry during match c. The shade guide should be disinfected after use d. The shade guide is a semi-critical item - answer-Teeth should be dry during match What is the amalgam material that helps hold a fixed restoration in place? a. Pin b. Post and core c. Core buildup d. All of the above - answer-c. Core buildup Core buildups are made of amalgam and used to add enough structural support to hold a fixed restoration such as a crown. What type of restoration is made of a pontic with wing like frame extensions that fit on adjacent teeth? a. Bonded bridge b. Maryland bridge c. Partial denture d. Both a and b - answer-d. Both a and b Maryland and bonded bridges are the same type of restoration, with a pontic tooth that is supported with wing-like frame extensions that are bonded to adjacent teeth. What term refers to the tooth that support a bridge? a. Unit b. Abutment c. Pontic d. Appliance - answer-b. Abutment Which of the following is not an example of a cast restoration? a. Inlay b. Fixed bridge c. Partial denture d. Crown - answer-c. Partial denture Partial dentures are not examples of cast restorations. A cast restoration is made of porcelain or gold and fits on a prepared tooth. Which of the following is the most widely used periodontal dressing? a. Noneugenol dressing b. Zinc Oxide-Eugenol dressing c. Both a and b d. No dressings are needed for periodontal procedures - answer-a. Noneugenol dressing Noneugenol dressing is the most commonly used periodontal dressing, because it has a smooth surface and rapid set time. Which of the following is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue? a. Gingival curettage b. Gingivectomy c. Gingivoplasty d. Scaling and Root Planing - answer-Gingivectomy What instruments converts high frequency sound waves into rapid vibrations for clinical use? a. Ultraviolet curing light b. Prophy angle c. Ultrasonic scaler d. High speed handpiece - answer-c. Ultrasonic scaler allowing for the easy removal of calculus on tooth surfaces. Which of the following is not for use when removing calculus deposits below the gumline? a. Gracey curette b. Sickle scaler c. Universal curette d. All of the above are appropriate for subgingival scaling - answer-b. Sickle scaler Sickle scalers are not appropriate for use below the gumline, they are designed for use on supragingival calculus. A patient arrives for a scaling and root planing procedure on his upper right and lower right quadrants. Which of the following people in the dental office may measure periodontal pockets? a. Dentist b. Hygienist c. Assistant d. Both a and b - answer-D. Both A and B A patient with moderate to severe periodontal disease is seen for their periodontal maintenance appointment. Upon examination, the patient exhibits mobility in localized areas. Moderate mobility would be recorded as a ____. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 - answer-2 Periodontal probing depths of 5-7mm are indicative of: a. Early periodontitis b. Moderate periodontitis c. Severe periodontitis d. Aggressive periodontitis - answer-b. Moderate periodontitis The inflammation of gingival tissue is: a. Gingivitis b. Periodontitis c. Periodontal disease d. Indicative of bone loss - answer-gingivitis To what degree can a mouth be affected with periodontal disease and the disease be considered localized? a. 35% b. 30% c. 45% d. 50% - answer-b. 30% A 14 year old male presents with large MO decay on #19. There is enough decay evident on the bitewing film to show that the patient will be in need of a crown. What is done in an attempt to save a pulp in cases where a root canal may not be necessary? a. Pulpectomy b. Pulpotomy c. Pulp cap d. Apicoectomy - answer-c. Pulp cap Pulp caps may help save the tooth pulp by placing a covering over the exposed or nearly exposed pulp during a restorative procedure. What is the reason for performing debridement during a root canal procedure? a. Smoothing the canal b. Remove bacteria c. Improve adaptability of filling material d. All of the above e. Both a and c only - answer-D. All of the above The ADA standard of care recommends the use of a dental dam for endodontic treatments. After placing the dam, the next step required is: a. Rinsing the dam and clamp with distilled water b. Disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution c. Removing necrotic tissue d. Local anesthetic delivery - answer-b. Disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution The ADA standard of care recommends the use of a dental dam for endodontic treatments. After placing the dam, the next step required is: a. Rinsing the dam and clamp with distilled water b. Disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution c. Removing necrotic tissue d. Local anesthetic delivery - answer-b. Disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution What solution is used as a sealer in deciduous teeth that undergo a pulpotomy? a. Zinc oxide-eugenol b. Glass ionomer c. Formocresol d. None - answer-c. Formocresol What instrument has small barbs along the shaft and is used to remove pulp tissue? a. Endodontic files b. Broaches c. Lentulo spiral d. Endodontic spoon excavator - answer-b. Broaches Which of the following is not an appropriate irrigation solution in endodontic procedures? a. Alcohol b. Hydrogen peroxide c. Parachlorophenol d. Sodium hypochlorite - answer-alcohol A patient comes into the office for an endodontic procedure. What is the minimum number of radiographs needed? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - answer-D. 4 Which of the following is not a root canal sealer that is used to seal unfilled voids? a. Zinc oxide-eugenol b. Glass ionomer c. Gutta percha d. Calcium hydroxide - answer-c. Gutta percha Gutta percha is not a root canal sealer. It is a root canal filling material. What is used to absorb the irrigating solution during an endodontic procedure? a. Cotton tip applicator b. Paper points c. Cotton pellets d. Air syringe and high evacuation suction - answer-b. Paper points Paper points are used to dry the inside of endodontic canals. how long? a. 60 seconds b. 3 minutes c. 7 minutes d. 10 minutes - answer-7 minutes During the extraction of an impacted tooth, what instrument is used to retract tissue away from the bone? a. Periosteal elevator b. Hemostat c. Forceps d. Rongeur - answer-Periosteal elevator Following an surgical scrub, hands should be kept: a. At waist level b. Above waist level c. Below elbows d. At shoulder height - answer-B. Above waist level What flat working instrument used for extractions has large cutting grooves? a. Rongeur b. Surgical curette c. Surgical chisel d. Bone file - answer-b. Surgical curette Bone files are flat working instruments with large cutting blades and are used to smooth the surface of alveolar bone. Which of the following is not a surgical procedure commonly performed in general dental practices? a. Alveoloplasty b. Forceps extraction c. Multiple extractions d. Extraction of impacted 3rd molar - answer-d. Extraction of impacted 3rd molar Forceps are held using the: a. Modified pen grasp b. Fulcrum technique c. Palm grasp d. Thumb grasp - answer-c. Palm grasp A dry socket occurs when: a. An open wound heals from the inside first b. A blood clot fails to form properly c. Granulation tissue is replaced by bone d. A blood clot forms and is replaced with granulation tissue - answer-b. A blood clot fails to form properly Which of the following materials is not an absorbable suture material? a. Chromic cagut b. Plain cagut c. Polyester fiber d. Polydioxanone - answer-C. Polyester fiber What describes the reshaping of bone between adjacent teeth that have been extracted? a. Alveoloplasty b. Surgical extraction c. Complex extraction d. Impaction - answer-alveoloplasty Surgical instruments are all considered to be: a. Non critical b. Semi critical c. Critical d. Operative - answer-C- Critical A tooth that has come out completely due to trauma or injury is said to be: a. Extracted b. Avulsed c. Expectorated d. Traumatized - answer-b. Avulsed Avulsed is the term used when a tooth completely comes out of the socket in one piece. Which of the following is not a type of stainless steel crown? a. Festoon b. Pretrimmed c. Contoured d. Precontoured - answer-a. Festoon Festoon means to be trimmed, but it is not the terminology used to describe a type of stainless steel crown. When the coronal portion of a dental pulp is removed from a primary tooth, the procedure is called: a. Indirect pulp cap b. Pulp cap c. Pulpectomy d. Pulpotomy - answer-D. pulpotomy Preventive orthodontics provided by a pediatric dentist include which of the following? a. Space maintainers b. Appliances to correct habits such as thumb sucking c. Extracting primary teeth that have been retained d. All of the above - answer-D. All of the above Which of the following is unique to pediatric dental offices? a. Private operatories b. Small x-ray tubehead equipment c. Open treatment bay d. Specialized instruments - answer-c. Open treatment bay Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until: a. 2 years of age b. They are able to expectorate c. Eruption of the first permanent tooth d. 5 years of age - answer-b. They are able to expectorate Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until they are able to expectorate. This prevents swallowing of fluoride The emphasis of pediatric dentistry is on all of the following EXCEPT: a. Early detection of dental disease b. Prevention of dental disease c. Developmental guidance d. Treatment of developing permanent teeth - answer-d. Treatment of developing permanent teeth A 5 year old male arrives for an MO composite on #K. What matrix band is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for use on primary molars? a. Steel b. Clear plastic c. T-band d. Spot-welded - answer-b. Clear plastic T-band matrixes are copper t-shaped matrix bands commonly used on primary molars. What type of crown is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for badly decayed teeth? a. Stainless steel b. PFM c. Porcelain d. Open face - answer-stainless steel Which of the following are the most frequently injured primary teeth? a. Maxillary central incisors b. Mandibular central incisors c. Maxillary central and lateral incisors d. Mandibular central and lateral incisors - answer-maxillary central incisors What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV - answer-B. Class II What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV - answer-C. Class III What are thin wires used around brackets that hold arch wires in place? a. Elastomeric ties b. Elastic chain ties c. Continuous wire ties d. Wire ligatures - answer-d. Wire ligatures What helps to bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches? a. Elastics b. Ligatures c. Headgear d. Facebow - answer-Elastics A dentist needs to guide an arch wire into place. What orthodontic instrument should be used? a. Hemostat b. Band remover c. Weingart utility pliers d. Pin and ligature cutter - answer-c. Weingart utility pliers Which of the following directions can orthodontic treatment move a tooth? a. Facially b. Apically c. Occlusally d. All of the above - answer-D. All of the above Which of the following is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings? a. Mercury b. Silver c. Tin d. Steel - answer-D. Steel Which of the following is not a common type of cavity liner? a. Dentin sealer b. Potassium fluoride c. Calcium hydroxide d. Cavity varnish - answer-b. Potassium fluoride A 35 year old female is having an incisal chip on #25 repaired. What is applied to the surface of a tooth to prepare for the use of bonding material? a. Sealer b. Varnish c. Etch d. Liner - answer-c. Etch Etch is applied to the tooth in order to prepare it for retention and bonding of material. What type of cement is used for permanently cementing a cast to a tooth? a. Base b. Type I zink oxide-eugenol c. Temporary cement d. Luting agent - answer-d. Luting agent Luting agent is- a permanent cement which is used in a very thin coat to permanently cement casting to a tooth. Bonding is greatly improved when etch is used on the surface of dentin to remove: a. The smear layer b. Cementum c. Enamel d. Biofilm - answer-smear layer What cement material is used for most temporary restorations? a. Resin b. IRM c. Glass ionomer d. Temporary cement - answer-B. IRM Which cement releases fluoride at a slow rate, inhibiting decay? a. IRM b. Glass ionomer c. Zink oxide-eugenol d. Zinc phosphate - answer-C. Glass ionomer Which of the following is the only material listed that is appropriate to mix on a paper mixing pad? a. Zinc oxide-eugenol b. Amalgam filling material c. Zinc phosphate d. Calcium hydroxide - answer-d. calcium hydroxide A ______ and ______ are needed when creating a proper contour of a new restoration. a. Tofflemire, wedge b. Tofflemire, matrix c. Matrix, wedge d. Matrix, retainer - answer-c. Matrix, wedge When preparing a matrix band, which edge has a shorter circumference? a. Occlusal b. Gingival c. Incisal d. Lingual - answer-b. Gingival Gingival edges are shorter than the occlusal edges, because the neck of the tooth is narrower than the occlusal crown portion. Which of the following is NOT true in regards to home whitening treatments? a. Corrects stains in restorative materials b. For aesthetic purposes only c. Made of hydrogen peroxide, or carbamide peroxide d. Contains a thickening agent - answer-a. Corrects stains in restorative materials Whiteners will remove some surface stains from restorative materials but will not remove stains or color from in a restorative material. Whiteners will only affect the tooth structure, not restorative materials. Wedges are not needed for Class ____ matrix systems. a. I b. II c. III d. IV - answer-I What thin, tooth-colored restorative material is bonded directly to the tooth in order to improve the appearance? a. Composite b. Bonding c. Veneer d. Varnish - answer-C. Veneer Which of the following is used for anterior composite fillings? a. Steel matrix band b. Universal retainer c. Tofflemire d. Clear plastic matrix band - answer-d. Clear plastic matrix band What is used along with bonding material when a tooth is badly broken down? a. Liner b. Base c. Retentive pin d. Build up - answer-c. Retentive pin Which of the following would NOT be needed for a varnish application set-up? a. Microbrush or applicator b. Curing light c. Varnish d. Cotton pellets - answer-b. curing light. Etching requires approximately how long in order to thoroughly etch the tooth structure? a. 5-10 seconds b. 10-15 seconds c. 15-30 seconds d. 45-60 seconds - answer-c. 15-30 seconds Which of the following is not a type of impression? a. Preliminary b. Occlusal registration c. Temporary d. Final - answer-c. temporary What type of material is an irreversible hydrocolloid that is the material of choice for taking a preliminary impression? a. Condensation silicone b. Alginate c. Plaster d. Polysulfide - answer-B. Alginate What material is used to create diagnostic casts when strength and accuracy of the model are not critical? a. Model plaster b. Dental stone c. Alginate d. Quick set - answer-model plaster Which of the following is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products? a. Temperature of water b. Exposure to light c. Amount of water used d. Humidity - answer-B. exposure to light What is predominately used to show the occlusion relationship between arches? a. Alginate b. Polether c. Wax bite registration d. Addition silicone - answer-c. Wax bite registration Wax bite registration is a soft, pliable material that allows the occlusion surfaces of teeth to easily be recorded. A mandibular alginate impression usually requires how many scoops of alginate powder? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - answer-B. 2 When taking a final impression of a tooth, the _________ form of viscosity is chosen for application directly into the sulcus of the prepared tooth. a. Light body b. Regular body c. Heavy body d. Base - answer-light body When taking a final impression, which of the following is not necessary for the set-up tray? a. Cartridge of light-bodied material b. Extruder mixing tip c. Cartridge of heavy-bodied material d. Alginate powder - answer-d. Alginate powder Mineralized bacteria on the tooth surface is called: a. Plaque b. Calculus c. Subgingival deposits d. Supragingival tartar - answer-B. Calculus De-minerlization of the tooth is caused by the loss of: a. Calcium and phosphate b. Acid and calcium c. Phosphate, calcium and enamel d. Calcium and fluoride - answer-calcium and phosphate What is made up of glycoproteins in saliva and forms on the surfaces of teeth within minutes? a. Plaque b. Pellicle c. Tartar d. Calculus - answer-b. Pellicle Pellicle is the thin layer made up of glycoproteins from saliva which deposit themselves on the surfaces of teeth in a rapid manner. When gingival infection extends to the alveolar bone, it is called: a. Gingivitis b. Periodontitis c. Trench mouth d. Necrotizing Periodontal disease - answer-B. Periodontitis Which of the following is a risk factor for developing periodontitis? a. Smoking b. Diabetes c. HIV d. All of the above e. Both a and b only - answer-D. All of the above Soft toothbrush bristles are preferred for brushing. What is the reason? a. They are more effective at removing plaque. b. They do not cause the gums to bleed. c. They are less likely to cause damage to the gums and tooth structure. d. They shape around the tooth surface. e. Both a and d only. - answer-c. They are less likely to cause damage to the gums and tooth structure. Are less likely to cause damage to the gums and tooth structure. Bristles that are too hard can cause gum recession and toothbrush abrasion, so using a soft bristled brush helps prevent these. What educational aid temporarily colors plaque for more effective removal? a. Tablets b. Disclosing agents c. Chlorhexidine d. Pellicle - answer-b. Disclosing agents Disclosing agents, usually in a tablet or liquid form, are used to color bacterial plaque and aid in proper brushing techniques that show the patient how to remove plaque more effectively. What is the most commonly recommended toothbrushing method that helps target plaque below the gumline? a. Fones method b. Small circle method c. Bass method d. Scrub brush technique - answer-c. Bass method Bass method is the most recommended method of brushing which targets plaque at and below the gingival margin. Which type of floss is most effective in plaque removal? a. Waxed b. Unwaxed c. Dental tape d. None of the above - answer-d. None of the above None of the above. While there are various types of floss, research fails to show that one type is more effective at plaque removal than any of the others. When brushing, a toothbrush should be placed at what angulation toward the gumlines? a. 90 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 180 degrees - answer-c. 45 degrees __________ pressure should be used when brushing. a. Heavy b. Moderate c. Light d. Toothbrush specific - answer-c. light Fluoride may sometimes be found in: a. Soil b. Food c. Well water d. All of the above e. Both b and c only - answer-d. All of the above All of the above. Depending on location, natural fluoride may appear in the water and soil of certain areas. Food that is grown in these areas will also contain fluoride, or it may be found in animal meat. Which of the following would not contain a topical fluoride? a. Toothpaste b. Mouthrinse c. Water d. Fluoride gel - answer-c. water When a tooth decalcifies and then remineralization occurs, which of the following is NOT accurate? a. A white lesion is evident. b. Re-mineralized enamel may be harder than surrounding tooth enamel. c. The enamel will be weaker than surrounding tooth enamel. d. Fluoride alone does not remineralize tooth structure. - answer-c. The enamel will be weaker than surrounding tooth enamel. That the enamel will be weaker than surrounding tooth enamel is not accurate. The enamel may actually be harder than other areas once it is re-mineralized. Young children exposed to long-term overuse of fluoride may develop what on developing permanent teeth? a. Fluorosis b. Hypocalcification c. Hypercalcification d. Hyperplasia - answer-a. Fluorosis Fluorosis is the long-term exposure to overuse of fluoride, which causes white spots on developing teeth. Optimum concentrations of fluoride in municipal water systems should be in what range? a. 3 to .7 ppm b. 1.2 to 2.0 ppm c. 5 to 1.5 ppm d. 7 to 1.2 ppm - answer-d. 7 to 1.2 ppm Which of the following are NOT at a high-risk to develop caries? a. Radiation therapy patients b. Children ages 6-16 c. Someone that lives in an area without fluoridated water d. People with low saliva flow - answer-b. Children ages 6-16 What is used by the body as the chief source of energy? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Water d. Fats - answer-b. carbohydrates What vitamin assists the body's ability to absorb calcium? a. A b. E c. D d. K - answer-c. D Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, strengthening bones and teeth. Which of the following is not a vital sign? a. Pulse b. Blood pressure c. Weight d. Respiration - answer-c. weight What common medical emergency occurs when blood flow to the brain slows and causes the patient to lose consciousness? a. Stroke b. Syncope c. Cardiac arrest d. Epilepsy - answer-b. Syncope Syncope, otherwise known as fainting, is one of if not perhaps the most common medical emergency in a dental office, resulting from slowed blood flow to the brain. Postural hypotension may occur when: a. A patient sits upright too quickly b. A patient has received nitrous oxide c. A patient is pregnant d. All of the above - answer-d. All of the above All are risk factors for postural hypotension - a lack of blood flow to the brain that often occurs when the patient sits up quickly. When does hyperventilation occur? a. When a patient does not take in enough oxygen b. When a patient takes in too much oxygen c. When a patient becomes anxious and faints d. When a patient asphyxiates water during a dental procedure - answer-b. When a patient takes in too much oxygen When a patient takes in too much oxygen due to frequent breaths caused by anxiety or stress. What is a neurologic disorder that causes seizures, and is normally controlled with medication? a. Convulsions b. Epilepsy c. Grand mal d. Petit mal - answer-B. Epilepsy Which of the following is NOT correct? a. Type 1 diabetes is insulin-dependent b. Type 2 diabetes is not insulin dependent c. Hyperglycemia is abnormally low blood glucose levels d. Hypoglycemia is abnormally low blood glucose levels - answer-c. Hyperglycemia is abnormally low blood glucose levels What heart condition is painful but does not usually cause death? a. Myocardial infarction b. Heart attack c. Angina Pectoris d. Cerebrovascular accident - answer-c. Angina Pectoris Angina pectoris is a painful occurrence when the heart is deprived of oxygen. It usually does not result in death, but it is a sign that the person may have other cardiovascular health problems. What is anaphylaxis? a. Swelling and blockage of air passages b. Interruption of blood flow to the brain c. Interruption of oxygen to the heart d. Drop in blood glucose levels - answer-Swelling and blockage of air passages A localized allergic response may include all of the following except: a. Hives b. Redness of skin c. Drop in blood pressure d. Itching - answer-c. Drop in blood pressure Which of the following supplies contain an allergen that might cause an allergic reaction in some patients? a. Dental x-rays b. Rubber dams c. Bite block d. Headrest cover - answer-b. Rubber dams Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a medical emergency? a. Patient nervousness b. Perspiration c. Clammy skin d. Pale skin - answer-a. Patient nervousness Patient nervousness is not a warning sign of a medical emergency. If a patient becomes so nervous that they begin experiencing warning signs as a result, then there should be an elevated awareness of emergency prevention. Who is in charge of the emergency response protocol in a dental office? a. The person that is delegated by the dentist b. The dental auxiliary that is with the patient c. The dentist d. The entire staff - answer-c. dentist Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a medical emergency? a. Dizziness b. Pain c. Nausea d. Uneven respiration - answer-d. Uneven respiration Uneven respiration is not a symptom of a medical emergency, it is a sign. Symptoms include something the patient is experiencing which they must tell you about and cannot be observed. A patient begins to experience hives and difficulty breathing. Which of the following emergency drugs would be appropriate for use in an allergic reaction? a. Glucose b. Methoxamine c. Epinephrine d. Oxygen - answer-C. Epinephrine Which of the following is an example of an appropriate item to keep in an emergency drug kit for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia? a. Juice b. Cake icing c. Sugar cubes d. All of the above - answer-D. All of the above During a bonding procedure for teeth #8 and 9, a patient begins experiencing trouble breathing. What position should the patient be put in? a. Be sat upright b. Be placed on 100% oxygen c. Be encouraged to walk d. Be laid back - answer-b. Be placed on 100% oxygen What color are oxygen tanks in the dental office? a. Blue b. Green c. Yellow d. Red - answer-B. Green Which of the following is not part of the standard of care for dental personnel emergency training? a. Taking vital signs b. Heimlich maneuver c. CPR d. Administration of intravascular drugs - answer-d. Administration of intravascular drugs Which of the following is NOT an example of a staff role during a medical emergency? a. Assist with basic life support b. retrieve emergency drug kit c. Call 911 and remain on the phone for assistance d. Call and notify patient's next of kin - answer-d. Call and notify patient's next of kin Call and notify patient's next of kin is not an example of a staff role during a medical emergency. Initial life support roles such as calling 911, retrieving the drug kit and assisting with CPR are specific staff roles that should be designated by the dentist should a medical emergency occur in the office. A patient faints in the dental chair. They should be placed: a. In an upright position b. In a reclined position with the head slightly higher than the feet c. In a reclined position with the head slightly lower than the feet d. Encouraged to breath into a paper bag - answer-c. In a reclined position with the head slightly lower than the feet If a patient faints, the patient should be placedin a reclined position with the head slightly lower than the feet. This encourages blood flow to the brain in an attempt to revive the patient. A patient begins to experience a seizure while in the dental chair. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? a. Remove any equipment from the area, to protect the patient from accidental self-harm b. Place a prop or suction in the patient's mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue c. Retrieve anticonvulsant medication d. Call 911 - answer-b. Place a prop or suction in the patient's mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue Which of the following is NOT appropriate when responding to a patient experiencing chest pain? a. Call 911. b. Allow the patient to sit until pain subsides, then allow a family member to escort them home. c. Have patient take nitroglycerin or administer some from the emergency drug kit. d. Administer oxygen to the patient. - answer-b. Allow the patient to sit until pain subsides, then allow a family member to escort them home. What color are nitrous oxide tanks? a. Green b. Blue c. Red d. Yellow - answer-b. blue ____ refers to what you should do in a given situation. a. Law b. Jurisdiction c. Ethics d. Reason - answer-c. Ethics Most boards have set forth a minimum standard for license holders. Ethics are voluntarily set standards. _______ refers to what you must do in a given situation. a. Law b. Jurisdiction c. Ethics d. Reason - answer-a. Law Law refers to what you must do in a given situation. A behavior may be unethical and still be legal. What type of supervision is used when the dentist is physically present in a dental office and delegates a procedure to the assistant to be completed? a. General b. Direct c. Indirect d. Expanded - answer-b. direct Which of the following is not a concept of risk management to prevent malpractice suits? a. Maintaining comprehensive records b. Following OSHA regulations c. Informed consent for procedures d. Maintaining high levels of clinical excellence - answer-b. Following OSHA regulations Implied consent differs from written consent. Written consent _______. a. is given when the patient agrees to treatment b. is given when the patient does not object to treatment c. is a less reliable form of consent in a court of law d. obtains documentation of consent and understanding of the procedure. - answer-d. obtains documentation of consent and understanding of the procedure. Which of the following is NOT included in a patient's chart? a. Financial information b. Consent forms c. Correspondence records d. Copies of prescriptions - answer-financial information A dental assistant marks the wrong amount of Lidocaine used in a patient's chart. Which of the following is an appropriate method of correcting a patient's record? a. Blacking out the misinformation with a marker b. Using white correction fluid c. Drawing a line through the text d. Writing over the text - answer-c. Drawing a line through the text Who owns a patient's records and radiographs? a. The state board of dental examiners b. The patient c. The office d. The dentist - answer-d. dentist Approximately 65% of child abuse cases involve: a. The head and neck b. Arms and legs c. The torso d. Sexual contact - answer-a. The head and neck The head and neck are involved in approximately 65% of all child abuse cases. This is why dental professionals should have an awareness and understanding of recognizing signs of abuse. A patient that has not been seen in the office for at least 5 years is: a. A patient of record b. An active patient c. An inactive patient d. A new patient - answer-c. An inactive patient When scheduling appointments inside of a practice management program, most time units are made up of: a. 5-10 minutes b. 10-15 minutes c. 30-45 minutes d. 45-60 minutes - answer-B. 10-15 minutes What act specifies the regulations that ensure privacy related to a patient's healthcare information? a. HIIPA b. HIPPA c. HIPAA d. HIPA - answer-C. HIPAA HIPAA is an acronym for: a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act b. Health Insurance Personal Accountability Act c. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act d. Health Information Portability and Accountability Act - answer-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Failing to maintain a recall system will result in: a. Unscheduled treatment b. Unscheduled hygiene patients c. Overbooking appointments d. Longer appointment times - answer-b. Unscheduled hygiene patients Who in the dental office is ultimately responsible for reporting child abuse cases? a. The dentist b. The hygienist c. The assistant d. All staff members e. Both a and be only - answer-d. all staff members What organization is responsible for regulating dentistry and those that practice it within each state? a. The state dental board b. ADA c. DANB d. Commission on Dental Accreditation - answer-state dental board Which of the following is NOT a mode of disease transmission? a. Bloodborne b. Airborne c. Indirect d. Sexually Transmitted - answer-d. sexually transmitted (this is not a mode of transmission. It is a type of transmitted disease) Which Hepatitis virus should healthcare personnel be immunized against? a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. All of the above - answer-B. Hep B Which of the following diseases can be spread through contaminated water supplies? a. Hepatitis C b. Tuberculosis c. Legionnaire's Disease d. Primary Herpes - answer-c. Legionnaires Disease Legionnaire's Disease can be spread through aerosols as well as aspirating contaminated water. A patient experiences an infection where symptoms appear quickly and are severe. What type of infection is this? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Latent d. Opportunistic - answer-acute A patient presents with symptoms of an oral yeast infection. What condition could have caused this infection? a. Staph infection b. Oral candidiasis c. Transient Bacteremia d. Measles - answer-b. oral candidiasis this is a yeast infection of the mouth, sometimes called "thrush" What is a microorganism called that is capable of causing diseases? a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Syndrome d. Pathogen - answer-d. pathogen Which disease is an example of one caused by a spore? a. Tetanus b. HIV c. Hep B d. None of the above - answer-A. tetanus tetanus is also called "lock jaw" a disease caused by a spore bacteria Which of the following does not determine how pathogenic an organism is? a. Concentration b. Portal of entry c. Type of bacteria d. Host resistance - answer-c. Type of bacteria The type of bacteria does not determine how pathogenic an organism is. Virulence, Concentration, Host resistance and Portal of Entry are some of the determining influences. A patient is experiencing increased stress due to a recent illness that has impacted her normal routine. What type of infection could have entered the body and then lie dormant until triggered by conditions such as stress? a. Opportunistic b. Chronic c. Latent d. Host resistant - answer-c. latent latent infections lie dormant in the body until conditions like a fever or illness cause the virus to become active. Which of the following is not a portal of entry for splash or splatter disease transmission? a. Eyes b. Mouth c. Non-intact skin d. Intact skin - answer-d. intact skin intact skin is a natural protective barrier and is not a portal of entry for splash or splatter disease transmission. A patient has a bloodborne disease. Which of the following is not a disease that the dental professional is concerned about contracting through contact with blood? a. HCV b. Tuberculosis c. HBV d. HIV - answer-b. tuberculosis TB is not a bloodborne disease it is an airborne bacterial disease Which hepatitis virus is not transmitted by bloodborne bacteria? a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep D - answer-Hep A A dentist is treating a patient with a porcelain crown on #4. Which of the following dental equipment does not create an aerosol exposure to the dentist during use? a. Ultrasonic instruments b. High-speed handpieces c. Air-water syringe d. Suction - answer-D. Suction Which of the following modes of disease transmission is also known as cross-contamination? a. Direct transmission b. Indirect transmission c. Airborne transmission d. Bloodborne transmission - answer-B) Indirect transmission Which of the following conditions is the least threatening to dental personnel when it concerns the risk of transmission? a. HIV b. Tuberculosis c. Hep B d. Primary Herpes - answer-HIV A patient states that they have contracted Herpes, and asks if there are signs of the virus in the mouth. After questioning the patient it is determined that the virus strain was contracted through sexual activity. Which herpes virus is sexually transmitted? a. Primary Herpes b. Herpes Simplex 1 c. Herpes Simplex 2 d. Herpes Zoster - answer-c. Herpes Simplex 2 The OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard guides employees to protect themselves from all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. Hep B b. Hep C c. HIV d. Tuberculosis - answer-d. Tuberculosis Tuberculosis is not a bloodborne disease, but all of the other viruses listed are conditions that the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard helps employees protect themselves against. Dental assistants are to treat each patient as if they were infected with a bloodborne illness. This precautionary method is called a. Personal protection b. Transmission precautions c. Cross-contamination prevention d. Universal precautions - answer-d. Universal precautions Universal precautions are the standard in which all patients are treated as if they are infected with a bloodborne disease. CDC standard precautions include care taken around all of the following EXCEPT: a. saliva b. blood c. intact skin d. none of the above - answer-C. Intact skin Which of the following is not a category of occupational exposure? a. Indirect b. Occupational c. Percutaneous d. Permucosal - answer-indirect A dental assistant receives a needlestick when attempting to re-cap a used needle during a dental procedure. Needlesticks or cuts in the skin are what type of occupational exposure? a. Permucosal b. Percutaneous c. Direct d. Cross-contaminated - answer-b. percutaneous percutaneous exposures are when the skin has been perforated and exposed to blood or possible infectious material. An assistant is re-capping a used needle after a treatment procedure. What is the appropriate method for the assistant to use when re-capping? a. Bend or break the needle after use b. Use a single handed re-capping technique c. Remove excess needles from disposable containers d. Wear gloves during removal - answer-b. use of single handed recapping technique Employee medical records, including proof of Hep B vaccination, should be kept by the employer for how long? a. Duration of employment b. Duration of employment, plus 10 years c. Duration of employment, plus 30 years d. Personal records should not be maintained by employers - answer-c. Duration of employment, plus 30 years Duration of employment, plus 30 years, is the recommended length of storing confidential medical records on employees. These must be stored in a secure, locked location. An assistant has seated a patient, assisted with the procedure, and just excused the patient following the treatment. When should handwashing occur? a. Before gloving b. After gloving c. After accidentally touching contaminated objects d. All of the above - answer-D. All of the above All of the following help to minimize cross-contamination EXCEPT: a. Hands-free water faucets b. Liquid hand soap c. Hand sanitizer d. Bar soap e. None of the above - they all minimize cross-contamination - answer-d. Bar soap When conducting an inventory of PPE equipment, a dentist should make sure all of the following items are available to staff EXCEPT: a. Protective clothing b. Surgical masks c. Heavy-duty utility gloves d. None of the above - all are considered PPE. - answer-d. None of the above - all are considered PPE. Higher levels of PPE should be used for which of the following? a. Handling a patient chart b. Charting during an exam c. Room clean-up d. Seating the patient - answer-c. Room clean-up PPE requirements state that: a. Disposable jackets must be worn b. Fluid-resistant material must be used for lab coats c. Protective clothing must cover employees skin down to the ankles d. Short sleeves may be worn during non-invasive procedures - answer-b. fluid- resistant material must be used for lab coats Fluid-resistant material must be used for lab coats. This can include disposable jackets or cotton or cotton/poly blend material. Bloodeborne pathogen standards state that protective clothing: a. May not be taken home to be laundered b. Should be placed in bags before taking them home to be laundered c. Must be laundered on site d. Should be washed in hot water - answer-a. may not be taken home to be laundered May not be taken home to be laundered. Laundering PPE that has been contaminated is the responsibility of the employer. A hygienist is changing her surgical mask after seeing a patient for a deep cleaning. When should a surgical mask be changed? a. Between patients b. When visibly soiled c. At the end of the day d. After 1 hour of use - answer-between patients When selecting PPE for an assisting procedure, which of the following is NOT an option for protective eyewear? a. Face shield b. Prescription eyewear c. Glasses with side shields d. Disposable mask/shield combo - answer-b. Prescription eyewear Glasses must have solid side shields. What can reduce mask filtration? a. Handling the mask by the edges b. Moisture c. Improper fit d. The type of mask - answer-b. moisture Moisture reduces the filtration abilities of masks. contact with the mouth or spatter reduces filtration What kind of gloves are sterile? a. Overgloves b. Exam gloves c. Surgical gloves d. Procedure gloves - answer-c. Surgical gloves In which of the following situations should utility gloves be worn? a. X-ray processing b. Instrument sterilization c. Patient examination d. None of the above e. Both a and b - answer-b. instrument sterilization A patient presents himself with a latex allergy. Which of the following type of gloves would be appropriate for the assistant to use? a. Nitrile b. Latex c. Plastic d. Rubber - answer-A. Nitrile Nitrile gloves would be an appropriate latex-free glove option for the patient with a latex allergy. Items like gloves, masks, eyewear and uniforms are considered: a. Preventative Personal Equipment b. Preventative Protective Equipment c. Personal Preventative Equipment d. Personal Protective Equipment - answer-D. Personal protective equipment An assistant discards of a certain piece of waste in its own container. What type of waste is this? a. Clinical b. Biohazardous c. Exam d. Procedural - answer-b. Biohazardous A dentist chooses sterile gloves for a procedure. Which of the following procedures is the dentist most likely about to perform? a. Prophylaxis b. Implant placement c. Amalgam filling d. Intraoral exam - answer-b. implant placement Implant placements are surgical, invasive procedures and sterile gloves should be worn instead of non-sterile examination gloves. Which agency's role is to issue standards that protect the health of employees? a. OSHA b. CDC c. HIPAA d. All of the above - answer-a. OSHA OSHA is a regulatory agency and their goal is to keep safety standards in place that protect employees from possible accident or injury. What law is the most important when it comes to protecting employees against exposure to disease in the dental office? a. Universal Precautions b. Standard Precautions c. OSHA d. Bloodborne Pathogens Standard - answer-d. blood borne pathogens standard The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is established by OSHA to protect employees from pathogens that are bloodborne. A recall patient has cold sores on his lip that have begun to scab over. Cold sores are a type of what kind of infection? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Latent d. Opportunistic - answer-c. latent Latent infections are those that come and go, such as viral infections like the herpes simplex virus, which causes cold sores. Splatter from the ultrasonic scaler makes contact with the hygienist's eye because she was using inappropriate PPE. What type of exposure is this? a. Permucosal b. Occupational c. Direct d. Percutaneous - answer-a. permucosal Permucosal exposures are those that come into contact with the mucous membranes like the eyes. A health care professional visits their doctor for vaccination due to occupational exposure risks. What type of immunity is achieved when someone is vaccinated and their body creates the antibodies against a disease? a. Passive natural b. Acquired immunity c. Active artificial d. Tider - answer-c. Active artificial Active artificial immunity is when the body does not have antibodies and then develops an artificial immunity to it after having been administered a vaccine. An assistant is cleaning up an operatory following a crown procedure. There are used mixing pads on the tray. What type of waste is this? a. General waste b. Contaminated waste c. Hazardous waste d. Infectious waste - answer-a. general waste routine waste like mixing pads, paper towels or headrest covers are examples of general waste that may discarded with regular waste like paper or other trash The dentist extracts a patient's 2nd bicuspids for their orthodontic treatment. Extracted teeth are a type of what kind of waste? a. Hazardous waste b. Pathologic waste c. Contaminated waste d. Blood-soaked material waste - answer-b. Pathologic waste Pathologic waste is a type of infectious waste and should be disposed of appropriately in accordance to state and local laws. The office staff are unloading the most recent supply of delivery boxes. As packages are opened, the assistant gathers specific sheets to include in an office binder. What is the information sheet called that contains health and safety information about chemicals used in the dental office? a. MSD b. PPE c. MSDS d. HIPAA - answer-C. MSDS MSDS stands for Material Safety Data Sheets and they should be kept on file for every chemical that is in the office. A patient breaks out into a rash after coming into contact with the dentist's latex glove. What is this reaction called? a. Acute irritant b. Contact dermatitis c. Irritating dermatitis d. Acute dermatitis - answer-B. contact dermatitis Contact dermatitis is when the skin breaks out after coming into contact with something that is an irritant or allergy to the person. An assistant is dressing in the morning to prepare for work. Which of the following is appropriate to wear in the dental office? a. Artificial nails b. Large jewelry c. Simple wedding bands d. None of the above - answer-c. Simple wedding bands Simple wedding bands are ok to wear in the dental office. Large jewelry and artificial nails, however, can harbor bacteria, which can contribute to direct or cross-contamination of the individual or others they interact with. An assistant is helping a dentist perform an extraction. The assistant needs to touch something not associated with the treatment. What gloves should be worn? a. No gloves b. Exam gloves c. Overgloves d. None of the above - answer-c. overgloves Overgloves are to be worn over treatment gloves to prevent cross-contamination to other areas inside of the operatory when they are needed for use. An assistant is preparing a treatment room for the next procedure. During this preparation, she sets out PPE for herself and the doctor. Does the same PPE need to be worn for all patient procedures? a. Yes, ever time b. Only if the patient is infected with a communicable disease c. Only for adult patients d. No, it depends on what risk of exposure the procedure is - answer-d. no, it depends on what risk of exposure the procedure is No, it depends on what risk of exposure the procedure is. A filling does not require the use of surgical gloves, but an implant procedure would. One of the staff members in the office refuses to receive the Hepatitis B vaccine. This employee must: a. Be tested for a natural immunity b. Sign a waiver for their employer c. Provide proof of previous inoculation to Hep B d. All of the above - answer-b. Sign a waiver for their employer A dentist hires a new assistant to replace the one that just moved to another state. What must he provide free of charge to his employees? a. Hep A vaccine b. Hep B vaccine c. Tuberculosis vaccine d. All of the above - answer-b. hep b vaccine The Hep B vaccine must be provided free of charge by an employer to each employee in the office if they are reasonably likely to be exposed to blood or infectious disease during the course of their work. This is a requirement of OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. Which of the following is capable of causing disease? a. Pathogens b. Chronic infections c. AIDS d. Bacteria - answer-a. pathogens Pathogens are disease-causing organisms. The other answers are examples of infections, viruses or infection causing organisms, but they do not cause disease. A patient has a poor immune system and becomes infected with a disease-causing pathogen. This patient may develop a(n): a. Chronic infection b. Acute infection c. Opportunistic infection d. Latent infection - answer-c. opportunistic infection Opportunistic infections occur in instances where someone with a depressed immune system come into contact with pathogenic bacteria and are not able to suppress an infection. An assistant is cleaning up the operatory following a crown seat procedure without wearing gloves. If transmission of a pathogen occurs, what type of transmission would it be? a. Cross-contamination b. Direct transmission c. Indirect transmission d. Perimucosal exposure - answer-c. indirect transmission Indirect transmission is when a person comes into contact with pathogenic microorganisms by handing contaminated surfaces or equipment, which can then be spread to themselves via contact with the face, or to other people. Biohazardous waste must be discarded by: a. Incineration b. Placed in separate bags from other waste c. Placed in separate bags marked with the appropriate waste symbol d. Placed in any leak-proof container - answer-c. placed in separate bags marked with the appropriate waste symbol All biohazardous waste must be placed into specially marked separate bags with the biohazardous waste symbol, then disposed of appropriately based on local laws and regulations. Dental employees are at a biggest risk to pathogen exposure by what type of transmission? a. Splatter b. Direct Contact c. Cross-contamination d. All of the above - answer-b. direct contact Direct contact with blood or saliva from a patient is the biggest concern to dental employees when it comes to disease transmission Which of the following can reduce a patient's ability to transmit disease during a dental procedure? a. Pre-rinse with an antimicrobial mouthwash b. Premedication 1 hour prior to the procedure c. Double-glove during treatment d. All of the above - answer-a. pre-rinse with an antimicrobial mouthwash Pre-rinsing with an antimicrobial mouthwash can help to reduce the number of bacteria in a patient's mouth, limiting exposure to pathogens from splatter or direct contact. A patient contracts a disease but then recovers. Their body has formed what type of immunity? a. Natural passive b. Naturally acquired c. Active natural d. Actively acquired - answer-b. naturally acquired Naturally acquired immunities are those that the body develops when it has been exposed and develops a disease, heals itself, and then develops a natural immunity to the disease so that it does not become infected again. In order to follow OSHA requirements appropriately, a dental assistant must have routine training in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Infection control b. Safety and protective measures c. HIPAA d. Hazard communication - answer-C. HIPAA When cleaning off a treatment tray, the dental assistant must dispose of waste appropriately. Which of the following is NOT an example of biohazardous waste? a. Blood soaked 2x2 gauze b. Used needles c. Exam gloves d. Used Sharps e. None of the above - all are examples of biohazardous waste - answer-c. exam gloves Exam gloves are not usually saturated in blood, nor do they cause an increased risk of exposure as sharps or blood saturated items would. What is the term that is used to describe how strong a disease-causing organism is? a. Pathogenic b. Virulent c. Contaminant d. None of the above - answer-b. virulent Virulent or virulence is how strong and capable a pathogenic microorganism is when it comes to causing disease. An infectious disease causes: a. Organ failure b. Allergic reactions c. Accelerated cell growth d. Tissue damage - answer-d. tissue damage Tissu