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MedSurg Comprehensive Final Examination GRADE A+GUARANTEED

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The 44-year-old female client calls the clinic and tells the nurse she felt a lump while performing breast self-examination (BSE). Which question should the nurse ask the client? 1. "Are you taking birth control pills?" 2. "Do you eat a lot of chocolate?" 3. "When was your last period?" 4. "Are you sexually active?" Answer: 3 1. Birth control pills regulate the hormones in the body but will not cause changes in the breast tissue. 2. There is a theory that chocolate increases breast discomfort in women with fibrocystic breast changes. 3. During the menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and menopause, variations in breast tissue occur and must be distinguished from the pathological disease. BSE is best performed on days 5 to 7 after menses, counting the first day of menses as day 1. Although BSE is no longer recommended by the American Cancer Society, some women might still be comfortable doing regular self-exams and the nurse should be prepared to provide information. 4. Sexual manipulation of the breast does not cause malignant changes in breast tissue. Which problem is a priority for the 24-year-old client admitted to the gynecological unit diagnosed with endometriosis? 1. Hemorrhage. 2. Pain. 3. Constipation. 4. Dyspareunia. Answer: 2 1. Anemia caused by endometriosis occurs over time and is not an acute complication, such as hemorrhaging. 2. Pain is the primary concern of the client; the pain occurs as a result of ectopic tissue bleeding into the abdominal cavity during menses. 3. Endometriosis does not cause constipation, and this would not be a priority problem. The client may experience pain during a bowel movement. 4. Dyspareunia is pain during intercourse, and this client is in the hospital (and unlikely to be having sex there). The 28-year-old client diagnosed with testicular cancer is scheduled for a unilateral orchiectomy. Which intervention should have priority in the client’s plan of care? 1. Encourage the client to bank his sperm. 2. Discuss completing an advance directive. 3. Explain follow-up chemotherapy and radiation. 4. Allow the client to express his feelings regarding having cancer. Answer: 1 1. With a remaining testicle, the client will be able to maintain sexual potency, but radiation and chemotherapy may cause the client to become sterile. Therefore, banking his sperm will allow him to father a child later in life. 2. Testicular cancer has a 90% cure rate with standard therapy; therefore, completing an advance directive is not a priority. 3. The client will not be undergoing chemotherapy for at least 6 weeks to allow the client to heal; therefore, this is not a priority intervention. 4. This is important, but when preparing the client for surgery, the priority intervention is to accomplish presurgical interventions. The nurse is teaching a class on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to high school sophomores. Which information should be included in the discussion? Select all that apply. 1. Oral sex decreases the chance of transmitting a sexual disease. 2. Sexual activity during menses decreases the transmission of diseases. 3. Frequent sexual activity is necessary to transmit a sexual disease. 4. Unprotected sex puts the individual at risk for many diseases. 5. Get vaccinated to prevent the most common STI. Answer: 4, 5 1. Oral sex still involves mucous membrane-to-mucous membrane contact, and disease transmission is possible; herpes simplex 2 is simply herpes simplex 1 transferred to the genitalia. 2. This is a myth. 3. The more often the person engages in sexual contact and the more sexual partners, the more likely the person will contract an STI; however, one time is enough to contract a deadly STI, such as AIDS. 4. According to developmental theories, adolescents think they are invincible, and nothing will happen to them. This attitude leads adolescents to participate in high-risk behaviors without regard to consequences. 5. Teenagers and preteens should get vaccinated for HPV, the most common STI prevented by a vaccine. The nurse has taught Kegel exercises to the client, who is para 5, gravida 5. Which information indicates the exercises have been effective? 1. The client reports no SOB when walking upstairs. 2. The client has no reports of stress incontinence. 3. The client denies being pregnant at this time. 4. The client has lost 10 lbs. in the last 2 months. Answer: 2 1. Kegel exercises do not have anything to do with activity endurance. 2. Kegel exercises are exercises that strengthen the perineal muscles. Multiple pregnancies weaken the pelvic muscles, resulting in bladder incontinence; a report of no stress incontinence indicates the Kegel exercises are effective. 3. Kegel exercises do not affect pregnancy. 4. Kegel exercises do not have anything to do with weight loss. Which diagnostic procedure does the nurse anticipate being ordered for the 27-year-old female client reporting irregular menses and lower left abdominal pain during menses? 1. Pelvic sonogram. 2. Complete blood count (CBC). 3. Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray. 4. Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen. Answer: 1 1. The pelvic sonogram, which visualizes the ovary using sound waves, is a diagnostic test for an ovarian cyst, which would be suspected with the client's clinical manifestations. 2. A CBC may be ordered to rule out appendicitis, but this client does not have right lower abdominal pain. 3. A KUB x-ray is ordered for a client diagnosed with possible kidney stones. 4. A CT of the abdomen would not visualize contents in the pelvis. The client diagnosed with stage IV prostate cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse assess before administering the chemotherapy? 1. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). 2. Serum calcium level. 3. Complete blood count (CBC). 4. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Answer: 3 1. PSA is a tumor marker monitored to determine the progress of the disease and treatment, but it is not monitored before chemotherapy. 2. Serum calcium levels may be monitored to determine metastasis to the bone, but it would not be done before chemotherapy. 3. The CBC is monitored to determine if the client is at risk for developing an infection or bleeding as a result of the side effects of the chemotherapy medications. The chemotherapy could be held or decreased based on these results. 4. AFP is a tumor marker monitored to determine the progress of the disease and treatment, but it is not monitored before chemotherapy. Which client should the registered nurse (RN) charge nurse of the day surgery unit, assign to a new graduate nurse in orientation? 1. The client after an arthroscopy with an AP of 110 and BP of 94/60. 2. The client with open reduction of the ankle who is confused. 3. The client with a total hip replacement being transferred to the ICU. 4. The client diagnosed with low back pain after a myelogram. Answer: 4 1. This client is showing clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock and should not be assigned to an inexperienced nurse. 2. Confusion could be a clinical manifestation of many complications after surgery, so this client should not be assigned to an inexperienced nurse. 3. This client is being transferred to the ICU, which indicates the client is not stable; therefore, this client should not be assigned to an inexperienced nurse. 4. A myelogram is a routine diagnostic test. With minimal instruction, an inexperienced nurse could care for this client. The client diagnosed with severe osteoarthritis is in the long-term care facility. Which nursing task should the RN delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? 1. Feed the client the breakfast meal. 2. Give the client an OTC antacid. 3. Monitor the client's INR results. 4. Assist the client to the shower room. Answer: 4 1. The RN should encourage the client to maintain independent functioning, and delegating the UAP to feed the client would be encouraging dependence. 2. Although the antacid aluminum hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, simethicone (Maalox) is an over-the-counter (OTC) medication, a UAP cannot administer any medication to a client. 3. The UAP cannot assess or evaluate any of the client's diagnostic information. 4. The UAP could assist the client in ambulating to the shower room and assist with morning care. The primary nurse is applying antiembolism hose to the client postoperative total hip replacement. Which situation warrants immediate intervention by the charge nurse? 1. Two fingers can be placed under the top of the band. 2. The peripheral capillary refill time is less than 3 seconds. 3. There are wrinkles in the hose behind the knees. 4. The nurse does not place a hose on the foot with a venous pressure injury. Answer: 3 CONTINUED.....

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MedSurg Comprehensive Final
Examination GRADE A+GUARANTEED

The 44-year-old female client calls the clinic and tells the nurse
she felt a lump while performing breast self-examination (BSE). Which
question should the nurse ask the client?

1. "Are you taking birth control pills?"
2. "Do you eat a lot of chocolate?"
3. "When was your last period?"
4. "Are you sexually active?"

Answer: 3

1. Birth control pills regulate the hormones in the body but will not cause changes in
the breast tissue.

2. There is a theory that chocolate increases breast discomfort in women with
fibrocystic breast changes.

3. During the menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and menopause, variations in breast
tissue occur and must be distinguished from the pathological disease. BSE is best
performed on days 5 to 7 after menses, counting the first day of menses as day 1.
Although BSE is no longer recommended by the American Cancer Society, some
women might still be comfortable doing regular self-exams and the nurse should
be prepared to provide information.

4. Sexual manipulation of the breast does not cause malignant changes in breast tissue.

Which problem is a priority for the 24-year-old client admitted to the gynecological
unit diagnosed with endometriosis?

1. Hemorrhage.

2. Pain.

3. Constipation.

4. Dyspareunia.

Answer: 2

1. Anemia caused by endometriosis occurs over time and is not an acute complication,
such as hemorrhaging.

,2. Pain is the primary concern of the client; the pain occurs as a result of ectopic
tissue bleeding into the abdominal cavity during menses.

3. Endometriosis does not cause constipation, and this would not be a priority
problem. The client may experience pain during a bowel movement.

4. Dyspareunia is pain during intercourse, and this client is in the hospital (and
unlikely to be having sex there).

Things to Look Out for When Buying a Used Caravan

The 28-year-old client diagnosed with testicular cancer is scheduled for a unilateral
orchiectomy. Which intervention should have priority in the client’s plan of care?

1. Encourage the client to bank his sperm.

2. Discuss completing an advance directive.

3. Explain follow-up chemotherapy and radiation.

4. Allow the client to express his feelings regarding having cancer.

Answer: 1

1. With a remaining testicle, the client will be able to maintain sexual potency,
but radiation and chemotherapy may cause the client to become sterile.
Therefore, banking his sperm will allow him to father a child later in life.

2. Testicular cancer has a 90% cure rate with standard therapy; therefore, completing
an advance directive is not a priority.

3. The client will not be undergoing chemotherapy for at least 6 weeks to allow the
client to heal; therefore, this is not a priority intervention.

4. This is important, but when preparing the client for surgery, the priority
intervention is to accomplish presurgical interventions.

The nurse is teaching a class on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to high school
sophomores. Which information should be included in the discussion? Select all that
apply.

1. Oral sex decreases the chance of transmitting a sexual disease.

2. Sexual activity during menses decreases the transmission of diseases.

3. Frequent sexual activity is necessary to transmit a sexual disease.

4. Unprotected sex puts the individual at risk for many diseases.

5. Get vaccinated to prevent the most common STI.

,Answer: 4, 5

1. Oral sex still involves mucous membrane-to-mucous membrane contact,
and disease transmission is possible; herpes simplex 2 is simply
herpes simplex 1 transferred to the genitalia.
2. This is a myth.
3. The more often the person engages in sexual contact and the more
sexual partners, the more likely the person will contract an STI;
however, one time is enough to contract a deadly STI, such as AIDS.
4. According to developmental theories, adolescents think they are
invincible, and nothing will happen to them. This attitude leads
adolescents to participate in high-risk behaviors without regard to
consequences.
5. Teenagers and preteens should get vaccinated for HPV, the most
common STI prevented by a vaccine.

The nurse has taught Kegel exercises to the client, who is para 5, gravida 5. Which
information indicates the exercises have been effective?

1. The client reports no SOB when walking upstairs.

2. The client has no reports of stress incontinence.

3. The client denies being pregnant at this time.

4. The client has lost 10 lbs. in the last 2 months.

Answer: 2

1. Kegel exercises do not have anything to do with activity endurance.

2. Kegel exercises are exercises that strengthen the perineal muscles. Multiple
pregnancies weaken the pelvic muscles, resulting in bladder incontinence; a
report of no stress incontinence indicates the Kegel exercises are effective.

3. Kegel exercises do not affect pregnancy.

4. Kegel exercises do not have anything to do with weight loss.

Which diagnostic procedure does the nurse anticipate being ordered
for the 27-year-old female client reporting irregular menses and
lower left abdominal pain during menses?

1. Pelvic sonogram.
2. Complete blood count (CBC).
3. Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray.
4. Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen.

, Answer: 1

1. The pelvic sonogram, which visualizes the ovary using sound waves,
is a diagnostic test for an ovarian cyst, which would be suspected
with the client's clinical manifestations.
2. A CBC may be ordered to rule out appendicitis, but this client
does not have right lower abdominal pain.
3. A KUB x-ray is ordered for a client diagnosed with possible kidney
stones.
4. A CT of the abdomen would not visualize contents in the pelvis.

The client diagnosed with stage IV prostate cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which
laboratory value should the nurse assess before administering the chemotherapy?

1. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA).

2. Serum calcium level.

3. Complete blood count (CBC).

4. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).

Answer: 3

1. PSA is a tumor marker monitored to determine the progress of the disease and
treatment, but it is not monitored before chemotherapy.

2. Serum calcium levels may be monitored to determine metastasis to the bone, but it
would not be done before chemotherapy.

3. The CBC is monitored to determine if the client is at risk for developing an
infection or bleeding as a result of the side effects of the chemotherapy
medications. The chemotherapy could be held or decreased based on these
results.

4. AFP is a tumor marker monitored to determine the progress of the disease and
treatment, but it is not monitored before chemotherapy.

Which client should the registered nurse (RN) charge nurse of the day surgery unit,
assign to a new graduate nurse in orientation?

1. The client after an arthroscopy with an AP of 110 and BP of 94/60.

2. The client with open reduction of the ankle who is confused.

3. The client with a total hip replacement being transferred to the ICU.

4. The client diagnosed with low back pain after a myelogram.
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