NSCA-CPT Practice Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers

NSCA-CPT Practice Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers Which of the following is a questionnaire that serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise? A) Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) B) Readiness to Change Questionnaire C) Health History Questionnaire D) Liability Waiver - answerA - The PAR-Q is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness for low to moderate intensity training; non-invasive, minimal health risk appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise In which situation should the trainer refer the client to a dietician? A) Billy wants advice on losing 100 pounds B) Shelly would like to learn how to eat healthier C) Bob has cardiovascular disease and would like to lose 30 pounds D) Gina is interested in cutting calories to lose weight - answerC - Personal trainers should refer their clients to a dietician if the client is in a disease state What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect? A) Evidence of disclosure B) Previous exercise history including adherence experience C) Detailed medical and health information D) Fitness measurement data - answerC - The health history questionnaire collects detailed information about an individual's health background such as medications, surgeries, family history, and lifestyle information What information does the Informed Consent form collect? A) Evidence of disclosure B) Previous exercise history including adherence experience C) Detailed medical and health information D) Fitness measurement data - answerA - The informed consent form is where your client acknowledges their "assumption of risk" and serves as evidence of disclosure risks and communicates the potential dangers of exercise. It does not release liability. What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? A) 130/70 mmHg B) 120/80 mmHg C) 121/81 mmHg D) 140/90 mmHg - answerD - An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or 90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is a condition that affects mainly which system? A) Musculoskeletal B) Integumentary C) Cardiovascular D) Respiratory - answerD - COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individuals oxygen carrying capacity When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers "yes" to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in physical activity. What is the next step in his fitness program? A) Begin training at a low intensity B) Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise C) Conduct a fitness appraisal D) Fill out a Health History Questionnaire - answerB - If a client answers "yes" to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers "yes" to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a prescription blood pressure medication. What is the next step in his fitness program? A) Begin training at a low intensity B) Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise C) Conduct a fitness appraisal D) Fill out a Health History Questionnaire - answerB - If a client answers "yes" to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal Which of the following is a method used by personal trainers for gathering dietary intake data in which clients report what they have eaten in the past 24 hours? A) Dietary recall B) Diet records C) Dietary history D) Dietary synopsis - answerA - The form of dietary data collection in which a person recalls what they have eaten in the last 24 hours is called dietary recall Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most important thing to do for this client? A) Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising B) Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program C) Monitor her blood glucose levels throughout the session D) Have her fill out a waiver of liability prior to exercise - answerB - It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to consult with a physician prior to beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client safety Mike is a 35-year-old male who weighs 150 pounds. He is moderately active throughout the day. Approximately how many calories should Mike consume daily? A) 2,000 calories B) 2,500 calories C) 2,800 calories D) 3,000 calories - answerC - A man who is moderately active should take in approximately 19 kcal/lb, or in Mike's case 2,850 calories/day Your client eats approximately 100 grams of protein, 500 grams of carbohydrates, and 50 grams of fat per day. How many calories is your client consuming? A) 2,600 calories B) 2,850 calories C) 3,100 calories D) 5,100 calories - answerB - There are 9 cal/g of fat and 4 cal/g of carbohydrate and protein. 9x50=450, 4x500=2,000, and 4x100=400. Add these together and you get 2,850 calories per day Approximately how many grams of protein per kilogram of body weight should an athlete consume daily? A) 0.8-0.83 g/kg B) 1.2-2.0 g/kg C) 2.0-4.0 g/kg D) 4.0 or higher g/kg - answerB - An athlete should consume 1.2-2.0 grams per kilogram of body weight daily. Anything over 4.0 g/kg can be dangerous Which of the following nutritional sources could contain added vitamins and minerals? A) Protein shakes B) Breakfast cereal C) Energy drinks D) All of the above E) Both a and b only - answerD - All of the above could possibly contain added vitamins and minerals Which of the following comes first in the initial interview? A) Implement and complete health history forms B) Assess and interpret results C) Obtain medical clearance D) Conduct interview - answerD - Conducting the interview is the absolute first step in the initial interview process Providing a description of available services, evaluating the motivation of an individual, and determining appropriateness are all parts of which portion of the client consultation? A) Discussion of goals B) Establishing client-trainer agreement C) Establishing client-trainer compatibility D) Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire - answerC - These all take place initially, in the assessment of compatibility In which portion of the client consultation are the legal documents, including a written description of services and the payment process, signed by both the trainer and the client? A) Discussion of goals B) Establishing client-trainer agreement C) Establishing client-trainer compatibility D) Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire - answerB - When establishing the client- trainer agreement, a legal document is signed outlining the process, services rendered, and payment plan When filling out the "medications" portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your client lets you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a physician's release for exercise, what is the most important difference in the client's exercise program versus a client who is not taking beta-blockers?