uWise OBGYN Exam Questions and Answers 100% Pass

uWise OBGYN Exam Questions and Answers 100% Pass A 28-year-old G2P2 woman returns today for follow up on her abnormal pap smear which reveals atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). Reflex HPV testing is positive for high risk type. She has never had a prior abnormal pap smear, and has been following the recommended screening guidelines. She is asymptomatic. Her pelvic exam reveals a normal cervix with a small amount of cervical mucous. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? A. Routine screening B. Repeat Pap smear in one year C. Repeat HPV testing in one year D. Repeat co-testing with Pap and HPV in one year E. Colposcopy - Answer- E. Colposcopy A 17-year-old G0 high school student is brought in by her mother for her first gynecologic examination. She began her menses at age 12 and has had regular periods for the past three years. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. For privacy, you ask to examine the patient without her mother. Further history is obtained in the examination room. She admits that she has been sexually active with her boyfriend for the past three years. She uses condoms occasionally and is fearful about possible pregnancy. She requests that her mother not be informed about her sexual activity. On physical examination, she is anxious, but normally developed. Her pelvic examination reveals no vulvar lesions, minimal non-malodorous discharge, and a nulliparous appearing cervix. The bimanual examination reveals a normal size uterus, and her adnexa are non-tender and not enlarged. Urine pregnancy test is negative. In addition to discussing - Answer- C Counseling about and screening for sexually transmitted infections is the best next step. This patient does not require treatment due to a lack of diagnostic criteria. A serum Beta-hCG is not indicated in the setting of normal menstrual cycles with last menstrual period a week ago and a negative urine pregnancy test. Guidelines for initiation of cervical cancer screening is recommended at age 21 regardless of coitarche. A pelvic ultrasound would not be indicated at this time especially since the pregnancy test is negative and given her lack of menstrual or pelvic symptoms. A 68-year-old G2P2 woman who has recently moved in with her daughter (a long- standing patient of yours) comes in for a health maintenance examination. A vaginal hysterectomy was done in her fifties for uterine prolapse. She is not sure if her ovaries were removed. She has never had an abnormal mammogram or Pap smear and has had yearly exams. She stopped hormone replacement therapy 10 years ago. She was recently widowed after being married for 50 years. She does not smoke or drink. Her diabetes is well-controlled with Metformin; she takes a daily baby aspirin and is on a lipid-lowering agent. On examination, she is a thin elderly woman with a dowager's hump. Her breast exam is unremarkable. Her lower genital tract is notable for atrophy. No masses are noted on bimanual and recto-vaginal exam. A fecal occult blood test is negative. Which of the following tests is not necessary? A. Bone density B. Colonoscopy C. Pap sme - Answer- C Pap smear screening is not indicated in patients who have had a hysterectomy, unless it was done for cervical cancer or a high-grade cervical dyspalsia. Patients with a uterus can discontinue cervical cancer screening between the ages of 65 - 70 if they have had three consecutive negative smears or two negative consecutive cotesting in the last 10 years and no history of high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia or cancer. Patients still need yearly bimanual and rectovaginal exam. Mammograms are done annually, as breast cancer increases with age. Colon cancer screening is recommended at age fifty. The patient has an exaggerated thoracic spine curvature, termed a dowager's hump, likely secondary to thoracic compression fractures secondary to osteoporosis. If this is confirmed on a bone density test, she may benefit from the addition of bisphosphonates. A 32-year-old G2P2 woman presents for a health maintenance examination. She is in good health and has no concerns. She does not have a history of abnormal Pap smears and her last one was three years ago. Her examination is normal including her pelvic exam. A Pap smear is performed and returns as normal with HPV negative. What is the most appropriate screening recommendation for cervical cancer in this patient? A. Pap smear and HPV testing in one year B. Pap smear and HPV testing in three years C. Pap smear and HPV testing in five years D. HPV testing alone in one year E. HPV testing alone in three years - Answer- C According to the American Cancer Society (ACS), the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP), and the American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) guidelines for the Prevention and Early Detection of Cervical Cancer, women ages 30 to 65 years should be screened with cytology and HPV testing (''cotesting'') every five years (preferred) or cytology alone every three years (acceptable). Screening by HPV testing alone is not recommended for most clinical settings and there is insufficient evidence to change screening intervals in this age group following a history of negative screens. A 25-year-old G0 woman is scheduled to discuss her recent abnormal Pap smear which showed atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). She has had one Pap smear at age 22 which was normal. Her only significant gynecologic history is genital warts that have not responded to treatment with local application of trichloroacetic acid. She has had eight sexual partners. She uses condoms and oral contraceptives. She has smoked a pack a day for the past two years. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? A. HPV typing B. Repeat Pap smear in three years C. Cone biopsy D. Cryotherapy E. Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP) - Answer- A