Test Bank For Federal Tax Research 12th Edition by Roby Sawyers, Steven Gill. Key Answers are at the end of Each Chapter

1. Tax planning has a higher likelihood of success when a tax practitioner is dealing with an open transaction instead of a closed transaction. a. True b. False 2. If a CPA becomes aware of an error in a tax return, he or she must immediately notify the IRS. a. True b. False 3. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act addresses issues of corporate governance as well as the independence of auditors. a. True b. False 4. An attorney, CPA, or enrolled agent may use advertising to obtain clients under Circular 230. a. True b. False 5. Circular 230 bans tax practitioners from giving written advice on a federal tax issue based on the likelihood of an audit. a. True b. False 6. Tax research is required only for tax planning, not preparing returns. a. True b. False 7. The three categories of modern tax practice include tax planning, tax compliance, and tax research. a. True b. False 8. Tax practice can be defined as the application of the tax laws to specific accounting situations. a. True b. False 9. State Boards of Accountancy are the organizations with responsibility to license public accountants in each state. a. True b. False 10. A member of the AICPA is not allowed to prepare tax returns that involve the use of the taxpayer’s estimates. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 1 Name: Class: Date: a. True b. False 11. The ABA Model Code of Professional Responsibility has the force of law and covers all attorneys practicing in the United States. a. True b. False 12. Drafting wills is a part of a CPA’s professional duties. a. True b. False 13. To become an enrolled agent, a person must either pass a special IRS examination or must work for the IRS for at least five years. a. True b. False 14. Tax avoidance and tax evasion are both illegal. a. True b. False 15. Paid tax return preparers must register with the IRS and obtain a PTIN. a. True b. False 16. Tax practitioners (as defined by the IRS) are regulated by Circular 230. a. True b. False 17. Enrolled actuaries are allowed to practice before the IRS. a. True b. False 18. A member of the AICPA may never disclose confidential taxpayer information under the AICPA rules. a. True b. False 19. A CPA can rely without verification on information given to the CPA by a taxpayer unless the information appears to be incorrect. a. True b. False 20. An ethical dilemma occurs when someone is faced with a situation for which there are no clearly defined answers. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 2 Name: Class: Date: Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21. Under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following actions would constitute deceptive advertising? a. advertising too frequently b. implying that the CPA had the ability to influence an IRS official c. promising a favorable result without justification d. implying that the CPA had the ability to influence an IRS official and promising a favorable result without justification 22. Which of the following is CORRECT about a CPA’s responsibility with regard to tax return positions under Statements on Standards for Tax Services No. 1 (SSTS No. 1)? a. A CPA may not base his or her position on authority that is not approved by the IRS under Section 6662 (accuracy-related penalty). b. A CPA may sign a return which has a tax position that has a realistic possibility of being sustained on the merits. c. A CPA may not sign a return which has any tax position that is not fully disclosed. d. All of these are correct. 23. Tax evasion is: a. a fraudulent act involving illegal nonpayment of taxes b. one of the objectives of tax planning c. an act of deferring tax payments to future periods d. the same as tax avoidance as both of them result in nonpayment of taxes 24. Who can represent a taxpayer before the IRS Appeals Office under Circular 230? a. a CPA b. an officer of a corporation may represent the corporation c. an attorney d. all of these are correct e. both a CPA and an attorney 25. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the unauthorized practice of law? a. Taxpayers may not represent themselves in Tax Court. b. A CPA cannot express a legal opinion on a non-tax matter. c. A CPA cannot draft wills or trust instruments. d. Both b and c are correct. 26. The Lowell Bar Association v. Loeb case addressed the issue of: a. unauthorized practice of law by nonattorneys engaged in tax practice b. legal research by taxpayers c. attorneys and CPAs working together in a practice d. all of these are correct 27. Which of the following statements best describes Circular 230? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 3 Name: Class: Date: a. Circular 230 has been adopted by the AICPA as its set of rules of practice for CPAs. b. Circular 230 is a set of Treasury Department ethical and legal standards for those engaging in practice before the IRS. c. Circular 230 is a set of internal rules at the IRS designed to protect tax practitioners from unfair discipline by the IRS. d. Circular 230 is a set of ethical rules for taxpayers. 28. Regarding open transactions, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. The transaction is not yet completed. b. The practitioner can suggest changes to achieve a better tax result. c. A tax practitioner has some degree of control over the client’s tax liability. d. The practitioner can fix the problem by amending the client’s tax return. 29. Under Statements on Standards for Tax Services No. 3 (SSTS No. 3), a CPA preparing a tax return should perform all of the actions EXCEPT: a. independently confirm the accuracy of the taxpayer’s information b. obtain additional information if the taxpayer’s information appears to be incorrect or incomplete c. review the prior year’s return when feasible d. determine when conditions for a deduction have been met 30. The primary change made by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act which affects the practice of public accounting is: a. Public accounting firms may no longer provide any actuarial services. b. Accounting firms may no longer offer tax shelters. c. Auditors may never do tax compliance work for their clients. d. Public accounting firms may provide some nonaudit services to their audit clients if the services are approved in advance by an audit committee. 31. Tax litigation is a process of: a. participating in an administrative audit b. settling tax-related disputes in a court of law c. filing amended tax returns as prescribed by tax laws d. arranging a taxpayer’s affairs to minimize tax liabilities 32. According to Circular 230, the ―best practices‖ rules are: a. mandatory for all tax practitioners b. restricted only to attorneys and CPAs c. aspirational, to act as goals for tax practitioners d. enforced by disbarment from practice before the IRS 33. A contingent fee is: a. always allowed by Circular 230 b. a fee that is out of line with the value of the service provided c. a fee based on a percentage of a taxpayer’s refund on a tax return d. all of these are correct Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 4 Name: Class: Date: 34. Under Section 10.3, Subpart A, of Circular 230, the following individuals may practice before the IRS EXCEPT: a. unenrolled agents b. enrolled agents c. enrolled actuaries d. enrolled retirement plan agents 35. In which of the following situations would a CPA be engaged in the unauthorized practice of law? a. The CPA drafts a contract for his small business client. b. The CPA files a client’s state tax return. c. The CPA answers estate tax questions for his client. d. The CPA represents his client before the IRS. 36. The Statements on Standards for Tax Services (SSTS) are issued by: a. the Internal Revenue Service b. the FASB c. the AICPA d. the American Bar Association e. the AICPA and the American Bar Association jointly 37. Due diligence, in essence, means a tax practitioner: a. must be efficient in performing his duties b. must give due respect to IRS officials c. should use reasonable effort to comply with the tax laws d. should charge reasonable fees for work performed for a client 38. The Statements on Standards for Tax Services are: a. part of the ABA Code of Professional Responsibility b. intended to replace Circular 230 c. intended to supplement the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct and Circular 230 d. none of these are correct 39. Circular 230 includes rules on all of the following topics EXCEPT: a. who is authorized to practice before the IRS b. standards for ―covered opinions‖ c. compliance with state ethical requirements d. a set of best practices to guide practitioners 40. The six principles of professional conduct under the AICPA Code include: a. responsibilities b. public interest c. integrity d. All of these are correct 41. Tax compliance is the process of: a. filing necessary tax returns Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 5 Name: Class: Date: b. gathering the financial information necessary to report taxable income c. representing a taxpayer at an IRS audit d. all of these are correct 42. An EA must renew his or her enrollment card on a: a. 5-year cycle b. 3-year cycle c. 2-year cycle d. Renewal is not required once an EA gets a card 43. In a closed transaction, the scope of tax planning is: a. more limited as compared to an open transaction b. limited by the IRS rules of practice c. limited to presenting the taxpayer’s facts to the government in the most favorable, legal manner d. more limited as compared to an open transaction and limited to presenting the taxpayer’s facts to the government in the most favorable, legal manner 44. Statements on Standards for Tax Services (SSTS) contain advisory guidelines for: a. members of the AICPA b. enrolled agents c. attorneys d. IRS authorities e. all of these are correct