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EMT Intermediate Final Exam (Answered 2022)

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EMT Intermediate Final Exam (Answered 2022) You respond to a nursing home's call regarding an older patient who fell. During your assessment, you note injuries that are not consistent with the mechanism described. You should: transport the patient and report your suspicions When treating an anxious and uncooperative patient with chest pain, you state, "If you don't settle down, I am going to put a large IV in your arm." What is this an example of? Assault You respond to a call for an 16-year-old boy who injured his arm. As you are assessing the child, he tells you that he does not want you to touch him. His mother tells you to begin treatment and transport the child to the hospital if necessary. What should you do? Continue your assessment and transport if necessary The concept of standard precautions assumes that: every patient is potentially infected or can spread an organism that could be transmitted in the health care setting After several years in EMS, you begin to experience chronic stress. An effective way to deal with this is to: sustain friends or activities outside of EMS You respond to a call for an older woman who has fallen. Upon arrival at the scene, you assess the patient, who is responsive and alert to person, place, time, and event. She states that she does not want to go to the hospital; however, her son requests that you take her. What should you do? Ensure the patient is fully aware of the consequences of refusing treatment A self-motivated AEMT should be able to: discover problems and solve them without someone else's direction Which of the following is NOT a typical warning sign of stress? Increased appetite Physical signs that indicate an emotionally disturbed patient may become violent include all of the following, EXCEPT: large physical stature Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? HIV cannot enter the bloodstream through intact skin Which of the following foods provides the safest, most reliable source for long-term energy production? Pasta Under which of the following situations would the AEMT NOT have a legal duty to act? You are off duty and encounter a man in cardiac arrest Continuous quality improvement (CQI) involves all of the following components, EXCEPT: negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call All of the following are roles and responsibilities of the AEMT, EXCEPT: providing definitive care for the patient's condition You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should: use binoculars to try to read the placard The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to: assess competence through a valid testing process You have just established an IV on a critically injured patient. As you prepare to dispose of the needle in the appropriate container, you get stuck with the needle. You should: report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible En route to the hospital, a diabetic patient regains partial consciousness. He tells you that he feels fine and that he does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired For consent to be informed, the AEMT must: explain the risks and benefits of treatment An AEMT administers 1,000 mL of IV fluid to a patient with severe pulmonary edema and a stable blood pressure. The patient then develops profound respiratory distress and becomes apneic. What is this situation an example of? Gross negligence While triaging patients at a multiple-casualty incident, you encounter a 40-year-old female with an obvious fracture of her right forearm and multiple abrasions to her face and arms. She is responsive and alert and does not appear to have any airway or breathing problems. You note that she is wearing an organ donor bracelet. You should: assign her an appropriate triage category and move to the next patient Which of the following defines your scope of practice within your local response area? Local protocols and standing orders A direct relationship between a patient's injury and the AEMT's actions or inactions is called: proximate cause Which of the following patients has the legal right to refuse treatment? Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure Molecules that bind to a cell's receptor and trigger a response by that cell are called: agonists The olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) is responsible for: smell The semilunar valves of the heart function by: preventing backflow of blood into the ventricles Which two pairs of cranial nerves do NOT exit from the brainstem? Optic and olfactory The __________ nerve innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper lid oculomotor Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic organ? Liver The primary waste product of metabolism is: carbon dioxide To prevent the tissues from becoming edematous, the __________ system must absorb excess fluid and return it to the central venous circulation lymphatic The myocardium is the only muscle that can generate its own electrical impulses. This process is called: automaticity The chemical neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is: acetylcholine In the pregnant patient, the secretion of oxytocin causes: uterine smooth muscle contraction The aorta divides into the two common iliac arteries at the level of the: fifth lumbar vertebra The most common solvent in the body, in which solutes or other substances will dissolve, is: water How many milliliters per kilogram (mL/kg) of blood are contained within the average adult male's body? 70 With regard to the heart, ejection fraction is defined as the: percentage of blood ejected from the heart Afterload is defined as the: degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps What part of the brain regulates a person's level of consciousness? Reticular activating system The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient, such as the cell membrane, is called: active transport Which layer of the heart would be penetrated during an emergent medical procedure in order to remove fluid? Pericardium What is the cardiac output of a person with a stroke volume of 60 mL and a heart rate of 90 beats/min? 5.4 L The thick fibrous sac that surrounds the heart is called the: pericardium During an allergic reaction, basophils release histamines and heparin. What respective roles do these chemicals play? Increase tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting The sebaceous glands of the skin secrete sebum, which: keeps the skin soft and prevents cracking Stimulation of alpha receptors of the sympathetic nervous system result in: peripheral vasoconstriction During an infection, white blood cells consume bacteria and foreign particles. This process is called: phagocytosis The point where the first cervical vertebra (C1) articulates with the base of the skull is called the: atlanto-occipital joint After the aorta arises from the left ventricle, it first: ascends and branches into the coronary arteries Nonfunctional erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen by cells called: macrophages A patient was struck in the right lower anterior chest with a baseball bat. In addition to fractured ribs, you should be suspicious of injury to the: liver Which of the following is a function of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)? Provides motor innervation to the muscles of chewing The study of the body functions in a diseased state is called: pathophysiology If the concentration of H+ increases, the pH of the blood will: decrease The layer of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the: parietal pleura The primary respiratory stimulus in a healthy adult is a/an: increased arterial carbon dioxide level All of the following are voluntary muscles, EXCEPT: smooth muscle Stimulation of beta receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in: increased myocardial contractility The jugular notch is located: at the superior border of the sternum The second heart sound (S2) represents: closure of the semilunar valves Chemicals that become ionic conductors when dissolved in water are called: electrolytes As an electrical impulse travels down the electrical conduction system, it transiently slows at the: Av Node Phagocytosis is the process by which: monocytes digest microbes If the body is sliced so that you have a left and right portion, a __________ plane is formed. sagittal Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath The renin-angiotensin system in the kidneys helps to regulate: blood pressure A bruit differs from a murmur in that a bruit: is auscultated over a main blood vessel If too much water enters a cell during osmosis, it will burst. This process is called: lysis The atrioventricular (AV) valves of the heart include the: tricuspid and mitral In most instances, a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order must meet which of the following requirements It must clearly state the patient's medical condition An AEMT witnessed a call in which his partner gave adequate physical care; however, he was deliberately rude because the patient was thought to be infected with HIV. The AEMT ignored his partner's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the AEMT is considered: legal but unethical Which of the following scenarios involves an ALS skill? Administering oxygen and infusing IV fluids You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene involving a critically injured patient. The scene is safe. Your FIRST priority is to: provide emergency care to the patient A male patient is reporting crushing chest pain. Prior to informing an invasive procedure on him, you must: explain the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is "not acting right." The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should: talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent Which of the following information is NOT considered confidential? time of dispatch You respond to the home of a 75-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient is terminally ill and has an advance directive; however, they are unable to locate it. How should you manage this situation? Begin CPR and contact medical control Which of the following components is NOT required to establish negligence? Abandonment Which of the following is NOT a standard licensure requirement for the AEMT? Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course Warning signs of stress include which of the following? Indecisiveness Authorization to use an automatic transport ventilator when transporting a patient requires which minimum level of EMS provider? EMT Which of the following physiologic responses is common during an acute stress reaction? Increased blood glucose levels A man is experiencing significant anxiety and depression regarding the impending death of his wife. However, the wife is trying to comfort her husband by telling him that she loves him and is prepared to die. What stage of the grieving process is the patient experiencing? Acceptance Critical incident stress management is a program designed to: confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them While caring for a 40-year-old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the AEMT should place a: HEPA respirator on himself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient An AEMT is trained and generally authorized to perform all of the following interventions EXCEPT: interpretation of cardiac rhythms Which of the following is your BEST protection against being accused of defamation of character? Documenting objective findings only You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" At this point, you should: retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate to make to the family member of a patient who has just died? This must be hard for you to accept The AEMT should wear double gloves when caring for a patient who: is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration Life-long immunity would MOST likely occur after a patient is infected with: rubella A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should ideally be held within how many hours after the incident? 24-72 hours While treating a man with severe chest pain and difficulty breathing, you are presented with a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order by the patient's wife. She tells you that her husband does not want any "heroics." How should you manage this situation? Provide supportive care and transport the patient In an enhanced 9-1-1 system: the phone number from which the call is made is displayed on a screen In most instances, a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order must meet which of the following requirements? It must clearly state the patient's medical condition While attempting resuscitation of a patient in cardiac arrest, you initiate CPR, defibrillate the patient with an AED, and insert a multilumen airway prior to contacting medical control. What does this scenario most accurately describe? Standing orders

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EMT Intermediate Final Exam (Answered 2022)
You respond to a nursing home's call regarding an older patient who fell. During your assessment, you note injuries that are not consistent with the mechanism described. You should:
transport the patient and report your suspicions
When treating an anxious and uncooperative patient with chest pain, you state, "If
you don't settle down, I am going to put a large IV in your arm." What is this an example of?
Assault
You respond to a call for an 16-year-old boy who injured his arm. As you are assessing the child, he tells you that he does not want you to touch him. His mother tells you to begin treatment and transport the child to the hospital if necessary. What should you do?
Continue your assessment and transport if necessary
The concept of standard precautions assumes that:
every patient is potentially infected or can spread an organism that could be transmitted in the health care setting
After several years in EMS, you begin to experience chronic stress. An effective way to deal with this is to:
sustain friends or activities outside of EMS
You respond to a call for an older woman who has fallen. Upon arrival at the scene, you assess the patient, who is responsive and alert to person, place, time, and event. She states that she does not want to go to the hospital; however, her son requests that you take her. What should you do?
Ensure the patient is fully aware of the consequences of refusing treatment
A self-motivated AEMT should be able to:
discover problems and solve them without someone else's direction
Which of the following is NOT a typical warning sign of stress?
Increased appetite
Physical signs that indicate an emotionally disturbed patient may become violent include all of the following, EXCEPT:
large physical stature
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?
HIV cannot enter the bloodstream through intact skin
Which of the following foods provides the safest, most reliable source for long-
term energy production?
Pasta
Under which of the following situations would the AEMT NOT have a legal duty to act?
You are off duty and encounter a man in cardiac arrest
Continuous quality improvement (CQI) involves all of the following components, EXCEPT:
negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call
All of the following are roles and responsibilities of the AEMT, EXCEPT: providing definitive care for the patient's condition
You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should:
use binoculars to try to read the placard
The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to:
assess competence through a valid testing process
You have just established an IV on a critically injured patient. As you prepare to dispose of the needle in the appropriate container, you get stuck with the needle. You should:
report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible
En route to the hospital, a diabetic patient regains partial consciousness. He tells you that he feels fine and that he does not want to go to the hospital. Under these
circumstances, you should:
assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired
For consent to be informed, the AEMT must:
explain the risks and benefits of treatment
An AEMT administers 1,000 mL of IV fluid to a patient with severe pulmonary edema and a stable blood pressure. The patient then develops profound respiratory distress and becomes apneic. What is this situation an example of?
Gross negligence
While triaging patients at a multiple-casualty incident, you encounter a 40-year-
old female with an obvious fracture of her right forearm and multiple abrasions to
her face and arms. She is responsive and alert and does not appear to have any airway or breathing problems. You note that she is wearing an organ donor bracelet. You should:
assign her an appropriate triage category and move to the next patient
Which of the following defines your scope of practice within your local response area?
Local protocols and standing orders
A direct relationship between a patient's injury and the AEMT's actions or inactions is called:
proximate cause
Which of the following patients has the legal right to refuse treatment?
Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure
Molecules that bind to a cell's receptor and trigger a response by that cell are called:
agonists
The olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) is responsible for:
smell
The semilunar valves of the heart function by:
preventing backflow of blood into the ventricles
Which two pairs of cranial nerves do NOT exit from the brainstem?
Optic and olfactory
The __________ nerve innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper lid oculomotor
Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic organ?
Liver
The primary waste product of metabolism is:
carbon dioxide
To prevent the tissues from becoming edematous, the __________ system must absorb excess fluid and return it to the central venous circulation
lymphatic
The myocardium is the only muscle that can generate its own electrical impulses.
This process is called:
automaticity
The chemical neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is:
acetylcholine
In the pregnant patient, the secretion of oxytocin causes:
uterine smooth muscle contraction
The aorta divides into the two common iliac arteries at the level of the:
fifth lumbar vertebra
The most common solvent in the body, in which solutes or other substances will dissolve, is:
water
How many milliliters per kilogram (mL/kg) of blood are contained within the average adult male's body?
70
With regard to the heart, ejection fraction is defined as the:
percentage of blood ejected from the heart
Afterload is defined as the:
degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps
What part of the brain regulates a person's level of consciousness?
Reticular activating system
The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient, such as the cell membrane, is called:
active transport
Which layer of the heart would be penetrated during an emergent medical procedure in order to remove fluid?
Pericardium
What is the cardiac output of a person with a stroke volume of 60 mL and a heart rate of 90 beats/min?
5.4 L
The thick fibrous sac that surrounds the heart is called the:
pericardium
During an allergic reaction, basophils release histamines and heparin. What respective roles do these chemicals play?
Increase tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting
The sebaceous glands of the skin secrete sebum, which:
keeps the skin soft and prevents cracking
Stimulation of alpha receptors of the sympathetic nervous system result in: peripheral vasoconstriction
During an infection, white blood cells consume bacteria and foreign particles. This process is called:
phagocytosis
The point where the first cervical vertebra (C1) articulates with the base of the skull is called the:
atlanto-occipital joint
After the aorta arises from the left ventricle, it first:
ascends and branches into the coronary arteries
Nonfunctional erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen by cells called:
macrophages
A patient was struck in the right lower anterior chest with a baseball bat. In addition to fractured ribs, you should be suspicious of injury to the:
liver
Which of the following is a function of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)?
Provides motor innervation to the muscles of chewing
The study of the body functions in a diseased state is called:
pathophysiology
If the concentration of H+ increases, the pH of the blood will:
decrease
The layer of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the:
parietal pleura
The primary respiratory stimulus in a healthy adult is a/an:
increased arterial carbon dioxide level
All of the following are voluntary muscles, EXCEPT:
smooth muscle
Stimulation of beta receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in:
increased myocardial contractility
The jugular notch is located:
at the superior border of the sternum
The second heart sound (S2) represents:
closure of the semilunar valves
Chemicals that become ionic conductors when dissolved in water are called:
electrolytes
As an electrical impulse travels down the electrical conduction system, it transiently slows at the:
Av Node
Phagocytosis is the process by which:
monocytes digest microbes
If the body is sliced so that you have a left and right portion, a __________ plane is formed.
sagittal
Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath
The renin-angiotensin system in the kidneys helps to regulate:
blood pressure

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