ACLS Pre-course Work & Self-Assessment Questions with Verified Answers Graded A 2024, Complete With Images.

ACLS Pre-course Work & Self-Assessment Questions with Verified Answers Graded A 2024, Complete With Images. Which quality improvement component of systems of care best describes the capture and review of data related to resuscitation education, processes, and outcomes? Measurement Which one of the following is an interdependent component of systems of care? Structure Brainpower Read More Science of Resuscitation. What is an effect of excessive ventilation? decreased CO Which is the maximum interval you should allow for an interruption in chest compressions? 10 s Which is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt? Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions What is the first step in the systematic approach to patient assessment? Initial impression Which action is part of the Secondary Assessment of a conscious patient? Which action is part of the Secondary Assessment of a conscious patient? Formulate a differential diagnosis Which is one of the H's and T's that represent a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and other emergency cardiopulmonary conditions? Hypothermia The CPR Coach role can be blended into which of the following roles? The monitor/defibrillator Which of the following is a responsibility of the CPR Coach? Coordinating compressor switches High Quality BLS Part 1.What is the recommended compression rate for high-quality CPR? 100 to 120 Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS Assessment? 5-10 seconds Which is a component of high-quality CPR? Compression depth of at least 2 inches Which component of high-quality CPR directly affects chest compression fraction? Interruptions To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag? Once every 6 seconds Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway? Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible Which action is likely to cause air to enter the victim's stomach (gastric inflation) during bag-mask ventilation? Ventilating too quickly In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube? Continuous waveform capnography What are the 3 signs of clinical deterioration that would cause activation of a rapid response system? Symptomatic hypertension, unexplained agitation, seizure What is the purpose of a rapid response team (RRT) or medical emergency team (MET)? Identify and treat early clinical deterioration What is the difference between stable angina and unstable angina? Stable angina involves chest discomfort during exertion What is a classic symptom of acute ischemic chest discomfort? Pain radiating down the left arm What is the most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infarction? Retrosternal chest pain What is one goal of therapy for patients with ACS? Relief of ischemic chest discomfort What is the recommended dose of aspirin if not contraindicated? 162-325 mg Which is a contraindication to the administration of aspirin for the management of a patient with ACS? Recent GI bleed What is the initial drug therapy for ACS? Oxygen (if needed), aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine (if needed) A patient without dyspnea has signs of ACS. There are no obvious signs of heart failure. You assess a noninvasively monitored oxyhemoglobin saturation. Which patient should receive supplemental oxygen? 88% Which clinical finding represents a contraindication to the administration of nitroglycerin? Systolic blood pressure of 84 What is one major sign of a patient having a stroke? facial droop What are the major types of stroke? Ischemic and hemorrhagic What is the most common type of stroke? ischemic stroke What stroke screen was used in the stroke video? CPSS Which is a sign or symptom of stroke? trouble speaking Why is it important for EMS personnel to alert the receiving facility stroke team as soon as possible? Reduce the time interval to definitive care What is the highest priority once the patient has reached the emergency department/hospital? CT Scan What is the time goal for neurologic assessment by the stroke team or designee and non-contrast CT or MRI performed after hospital arrival? 20 mins What is the primary time window for the administration of fibrinolytic therapy, timed from the onset of systems? Within 3 hours In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? Hypotension • Acutely altered mental status • Signs of shock • Ischemic chest discomfort • Acute heart failure A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next? 12 mg A 57-year-old woman has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. She becomes diaphoretic, and her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Which action do you take next? Perform electrical cardio version A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which drug should be administered first? Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be given next? Amiodarone 300 mg A patient has been resuscitated from cardiac arrest. During post-ROSC treatment, the patient becomes unresponsive, with a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia on the monitor. Which action is indicated next? Give an immediate unsynchronized high dose energy shock (defibrillation dose) What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest? 32 - 36 C During post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range? at least 24 hours A patient is in refractory ventricular fibrillation. High-quality CPR is in progress. One dose of epinephrine was given after the second shock. An antiarrhythmic drug was given immediately after the third shock. You are the team leader. Which medication do you order next? Epinephrine 1 mg A 62-year-old man suddenly experienced difficulty speaking and left-sided weakness. He meets initial criteria for fibrinolytic therapy, and a CT scan of the brain is ordered. Which best describes the guidelines for antiplatelet and fibrinolytic therapy? Hold aspirin for at least 24 hours if rtPA is administered. What is the indication for the us of magnesium in cardiac arrest? Pulseless ventricular tachycardia-associated torsades de pointes. A monitored patient in the ICU developed a sudden onset of narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 220/min. The patient's blood pressure is 128/58 mm Hg, the PETCO2 is 38 mm Hg, and the pulse oximetry reading is 98%. There is vascular access in the left arm, and the patient has not been given any vasoactive drugs. A 12-lead ECG confirms a supraventricular tachycardia with no evidence of ischemia or infarction. The heart rate has no responded to vagal maneuvers. What is your next action? Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to an initial shock. If no pathway for medication administration is in place, which method is preferred? IV or IO You arrive on the scene with the code team. High-quality CPR is in progress. An AED has previously advised "no shock indicated." A rhythm check now finds asystole. After resuming high-quality compressions, which action do you take next? Establish IV or IO access A patient is in cardiac arrest. High-quality chest compressions are being given. The patient is intubated, and an IV has been started. The rhythm is asystole. What is the first drug/dose to administer? Epinephrine 1 mg IV / IO A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to second shock. Which drug should be administered first? Epinephrine 1 mg IV / IO