AAVSB Practice Tests (all combined) ALL SOLUTION LATEST EDITION 2024 GUARANTEED GRADE A+
A vial of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per milliliter, how much diluent is needed? A. 2 mL B. 4 mL C. 5 mL D. 10 mL C. 5 mL When an anesthetized patient is to be placed on a circular or semiclosed anesthesia circuit, the correct reservoir bag size is determined by using which of the following? A. 60 mL/lb/min B. 60 mL/lb C. 60 mL/kg D. 60 mL/kg/min C. 60 mL/kg It is necessary to immunize ferrets against: A. feline panleukopenia. B. feline rhinotracheitis. C. canine hepatitis. D. canine distemper. D. canine distemper. Endotracheal intubation of the horse is usually performed: A. blindly. B. with the aid of a laryngoscope. C. by palpation of the larynx. D. with direct visualization of the larynx. A. blindly In an anesthetized patient, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to: A. exhausted soda lime. B. low respiratory rate. C. excess artificial ventilation. D. kinked endotracheal tube. C. excess artificial ventilation. Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure? A. Povidone iodine B. Hexachlorophene C. Isopropyl alcohol D. Chlorhexidine C. Isopropyl alcohol Ivermectin is classified as which type of agent? A. Fungicide B. Anthelmintic C. Antibiotic D. Disinfectant B. Anthelmintic When discharging a patient that is wearing a fentanyl patch, instructions to the owners should include: A. skin irritation from the patch is considered a normal reaction. B. proper use and disposal of the patch. C. duration of pain control is 24 hours. D. gloves are not necessary when handling the patch. B. proper use and disposal of the patch. Acepromazine is classified as a/an: A. neuroleptanalgesic. B. anticholinergic. C. dissociative. D. tranquilizer. D. tranquilizer. The correct names of the four valves of the heart are: A. pulmonic, systolic, atrial, and tricuspid. B. mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid. C. aortic, diastolic, septal, and mitral. D. mitral, pulmonic, atrial, and tricuspid. B. mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid. If anaphylaxis occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock? A. Antihistamines B. Epinephrine C. Doxapram D. Dexamethasone B. Epinephrine In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine, the most important form of therapy is to: A. administer IV fluids. B. inject corticosteroids. C. keep the patient warm. D. give analgesics. A. administer IV fluids Which of the following is the smallest suture? A. #1 B. 0 C. 3-0 D. 5-0 D. 5-0 When a patient shows clinical signs of dyspnea and cyanosis, the technician should check for: A. ataxia. B. hypothermia. C. respiratory obstruction. D. urethral obstruction. C. respiratory obstruction. For a 20-kg dog that is 5% dehydrated, how much fluid replacement is required? A. 250 mL B. 500 mL C. 1000 mL D. 2000 mL C. 1000 mL A vial containing 1 gram of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed and what concentration will result? A. 25 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/L B. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 2.5 mg/L C. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/mL D. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL D. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL In the anesthetized, healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory acidosis The standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is: A. MacConkey. B. Hektoen enteric. C. Sabouraud dextrose. D. Mueller-Hinton. D. Mueller-Hinton. The inhalant anesthetic isoflurane: A. is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container. B. is odorless. C. is flammable. D. does not vaporize at room temperature when stored in an open container. A. is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container. For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent: A. decubital sores. B. granuloma. C. laminitis. D. neuromuscular damage. D. neuromuscular damage. Adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal: A. heart rate. B. body temperature. C. capillary refill. D. pupillary size. C. capillary refill. Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle and the release of a mature egg from an ovary? A. Luteinizing hormone B. Estrogen C. Follicle stimulating hormone D. Progesterone A. Luteinizing hormone The most profound adverse effect of the opioid drugs is: A. respiratory depression. B. decreased heart rate. C. bowel hypermotility. D. decreased blood pressure A. respiratory depression. How long is the gestation period in the mare? A. 112 - 115 days B. 148 - 156 days C. 280 - 290 days D. 326 - 354 days D. 326 - 354 days Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as: A. carriers. B. hosts. C. fomites. D. vectors. C. fomites. Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the life cycle? A. Ascarid B. Hookworm C. Coccidia D. Heartworm D. Heartworm Basophilic stippling of RBCs is a characteristic finding in: A. lead poisoning in dogs. B. anemia in horses. C. acetaminophen toxicity in cats. D. healthy avian blood. A. lead poisoning in dogs. An effective drug for treating anaphylaxis is: A. calcium gluconate. B. piperazine. C. procaine. D. epinephrine. D. epinephrine. If a horse is given 825 mL of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is: A. 0.825 g B. 8.25 g C. 82.5 g D. 825 g C. 82.5 g Which of the following does not increase radiographic density? A. Increased kVp B. Increased distance from target C. Increased developing time D. Increased developing temperature B. Increased distance from target Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as: A. microcytic, hypochromic. B. macrocytic, polychromatic. C. macrocytic, hypochromic. D. microcytic, polychromatic. A. microcytic, hypochromic. Bordetella vaccine is given to dogs to prevent: A. Lyme disease. B. parainfluenza. C. distemper. D. tracheobronchitis. D. tracheobronchitis. Which type of suture material is more likely to "wick" fluid along it and therefore, should not be used in a contaminated environment? A. Catgut B. Monofilament C. Stainless steel D. Braided polyglactin 910 D. Braided polyglactin 910 A palpebral reflex is checked at the: A. pupil. B. foot. C. eyelid. D. throat. C. eyelid. Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff overinflation during lengthy anesthesia? A. Air leakage from the cuff B. Cuff rotation within the trachea C. Tissue necrosis D. Cuff wear and tear C. Tissue necrosis What is the advantage of using a narcotic as a premedication? A. Increased analgesia B. Increased blood pressure C. Decreased salivation D. Decreased respirations A. Increased analgesia In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely to be due to: A. estrus. B. inflammation. C. ketosis. D. pregnancy. B. inflammation. When skeletal muscles are not being used, or when they lose their nerve supply, they tend to: A. hypertrophy. B. atrophy. C. necrose. D. dystrophy. B. atrophy. In radiographic terminology, to which of the following does the term density refer? A. The difference in anatomical detail observable between two areas on the radiograph B. The concentration of X rays produced C. The thickness of the radiograph D. The degree of blackness of the radiograph D. The degree of blackness of the radiograph Butorphanol tartrate has been prescribed for a Pomeranian with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of this drug is: A. hyperventilation. B. tachycardia. C. polydipsia. D. sedation. D. sedation. The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is: A. to remove histamine from the tissues. B. the phagocytosis of small particles. C. the antigen/antibody response. D. to transport oxygen to the tissues. B. the phagocytosis of small particles. The contrast media that are most used in veterinary radiography are iodine, barium sulfate, and: A. water. B. urine. C. air. D. feces. C. air. Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as: A. mast cells. B. macrophages. C. Schwann cells. D. mesothelial cells. D. mesothelial cells. Constant Rate Infusion (CRI) of an analgesic: A. rarely requires a loading dose. B. is administered in large amounts over a short period of time. C. avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection. D. provides excellent analgesia in dogs but not in cats. C. avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection. Which of the following instruments is used for removing subgingival plaque? CONTINUED..
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aavsb practice tests all combined
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a vial of penicillin contains 2000000 units of t
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when an anesthetized patient is to be placed on a
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it is necessary to immunize ferrets against