DAT Test Bank Questions with Answers 100% correct | 2024 update

DAT Test Bank Questions with Answers 100% correct | 2024 update DAT Test Bank Questions with Answers 100% correct | 2024 update Contains marking scheme Survey of Natural Sciences Which of the following viral genomes can be directly translated into protein by the host cell’s translation machinery? Double-stranded DNA Single-stranded DNA, coding (+) strand Double-stranded RNA Single-stranded RNA, coding (+) strand Single-stranded RNA, template (–) strand Which enzyme is involved in the movement of the phosphate group from phosphoenolpyruvate to adenosine diphosphate in glycolysis? Pyruvate kinase Dehydrogenase Hexokinase Phosphatase Fumarase The pyruvate molecules from glycolysis get further broken down in the Krebs cycle and generate how many NADHs? 3 4 6 8 10 All the molecules shown in the diagram below move across the cell membrane by either simple or facilitated diffusion. Which molecule will move from outside of the cell to inside the cell? CO2 O2 Na+ Ca+ H2 O What cellular structure is responsible for the synthesis of lipids, steroids, proteins, and the transportation of proteins? Golgi apparatus Endoplasmic reticulum Lysosome Mitochondria Ribosome Which statement about green fluorescent protein (GFP) has furthered the ability of scientists to understand cell functions? It has a beta barrel structure. It mutates to form yellow fluorescent protein (YFP). It occurs naturally in specific jellyfish. It emits a green color under UV light. It can easily bond with many proteins. A tRNA molecule is unable to bind to an amino acid because of the presence of an antibiotic. What is the outcome of the antibiotic binding to the tRNA molecule? The mRNA formed will be inaccurate during transcription. The protein that forms will contain an inaccurate amino acid. The protein synthesis will be terminated without a viable product. The polypeptide chain that is formed will be longer than needed. The tRNA will be translated to form an inaccurate mRNA strand. The order of biological taxonomic hierarchy from most inclusive to most specific is genus, family, species, class, order, domain, phylum, kingdom. species, genus, order, class, family, phylum, kingdom, domain. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species. kingdom, phylum, class, domain, order, family, genus, species. phylum, domain, kingdom, family, genus, species, order. How did the biological taxonomic hierarchy change over time to reach the modern system? Organisms were previously grouped based on their common physical characteristics but are now distinguished by ribosomal RNA. Once genetic material was discovered, scientists began to categorize organisms by their genetic relationships. Through the use of the microscope, scientists have been able to categorize organisms based on if they are unicellular organisms without a nucleus or organisms with cells that contain a nucleus. The understanding of DNA sequencing has distinguished fungi and plant organisms into separate domains. Based on the ability to determine genetic sequencing, organisms are no longer divided into five kingdoms based on physical characteristics. How does the lateral pterygoid muscle differ from the other muscles that move the jaw? It can move the jaw forward and side to side. It is not responsible for closing the jaw. It is not present on either side of the skull and does not work as a pair. It is often the cause of tension headaches due to its overuse in the jaw. It is on both sides of the jaw and works as a set. Gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in which vessel/tissue of the circulatory system? Arteries Arterioles Capillaries Veins Venules The alveoli of the lungs are held together in clusters called alveolar sacs. They resemble clusters of grapes. What is the purpose of their spherical shape? Body cells in general have a tendency to form spherical shapes, so the alveoli are following a natural pattern. Capillaries are round, and gas exchange between the two has resulted in spherical alveoli. Epithelial cells make up the alveoli, and they tend to form spherical shapes. The extracellular matrix that connects the alveoli to the capillaries causes them to take on a spherical shape. Their shape maximizes the surface area to volume ratio, making gas exchange efficient. What is the primary function of the ascending loop of Henle? Reabsorption of chloride ions Reabsorption of sodium ions Reabsorption of potassium ions Reabsorption of urea Reabsorption of water Which part of the nervous system controls voluntary muscle movements? Autonomic Central Parasympathetic Somatic Sympathetic Which type of neuroglia cell is the most common in the central nervous system? Astrocytes Ependymal cells Microglial cells Oligodendrocytes Schwann cells In neurogenic diabetes insipidus, the hormone vasopressin is deficient or absent. This results in high volume, concentrated urine with polydipsia. high volume, dilute urine with polydipsia and polyuria. low volume, concentrated urine with polyuria. low volume, concentrated urine with polyuria and polydipsia. low volume, dilute urine with polyuria and polydipsia. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a peptide hormone produced by the hypothalamus but stored in the neurohypophysis. As a main function, ADH regulates blood pressure by acting to increase resistance in the arterioles vessels and increase reabsorption of water by the kidneys. increase resistance to the arterioles blood vessels and decrease reabsorption of water by the kidneys. increase resistance in the venous blood vessels and increase reabsorption of water by the kidneys. decrease resistance in the venous blood vessels and increase reabsorption of water by the kidneys. decrease resistance in the arterioles blood vessels and decrease reabsorption of water by the kidneys. In which stage of the cleavage process does the zygote develop the three germ layers? Blastocoel Blastocyst Gastrula Morula Neurulation The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways must activate caspases, initiate apoptosis, or program cell death. During the intrinsic pathway of caspase activation, there must be a balance between which set of genes that are pro- apoptotic and anti-apoptotic? A1 and BIK BAD an BAK BAD and BID Bcl-2 and Bcl-x HRK and BIK Why do saltwater fish typically produce concentrated urine? Fish have lower internal concentrations of salt and other solutes than seawater. Fish have higher internal concentrations of salt and other solutes than seawater. Concentrated urine helps fish maintain thermostasis. Fish are osmoconformers. Concentrated urine is less energy intensive to produce. What do acrosomal reactions entail during fertilization? Degradation of the glycoprotein matrix Degradation of the egg’s plasma membrane Degradation of the sperm’s plasma membrane Degradation of the glycolipid matrix Degradation of the egg’s cell wall How many germ layers are formed during gastrulation? 0 1 2 3 4 Of the following, which examples represent environmental influences on developmental patterns? The formation of webbed feet in ducks. The spring and summer forms of a caterpillar. The formation of larger helmets in water fleas I only I and II only I and III only II and III only I, II, and III In gene mutations a substitution is the addition of one or more base pairs by different base pairs to a gene sequence. the loss of one or more base pairs by different base pairs in a gene sequence. the replacement of one or more base pairs by different base pairs in a gene sequence. the alteration of a single base pair in a gene sequence. the formation of a stop codon in a gene sequence. One of the greatest challenges in genetic engineering is introducing modified material into host DNA. All of the following have been used for this purpose EXCEPT the gene gun plasmids PCR viruses RNA interference Brown eyes (BB) are dominant to blue eyes (bb). If a brown-eyed father, who carries the recessive gene, has a child with a blue-eyed mother, what is the probability that the child will have blue eyes? 0% 25% 50% 75% 100% In some dog breeds, the merle coat is characterized by a solid base with lighter patches of color so that the coat appears mottled or speckled. A significant association between deafness and the merle genotype has been found. What is a possible genetic reason for this? The genes for deafness and merle coat are linked on the same chromosome, and there are no chances for crossover to happen. The genes for deafness and merle coat are linked on the same chromosome, and there are fewer chances for crossover to happen. The genes for deafness and merle coat are linked on the same chromosome, and there are more chances for crossover to happen. The genes for deafness and merle coat are not linked on the same chromosome, and there are fewer chances for crossover to happen. The genes for deafness and merle coat are not linked on the same chromosome, and there are more chances for crossover to happen. A sequence of steps causes bacteria cells to produce specific proteins, such as insulin. Which is the correct sequence of these steps shown below? New bacteria cell divides. Restriction enzyme removes a section of plasmid. Plasmid is removed from bacteria cell. Modified plasmid is introduced into a new bacteria cell. Desired genes for protein synthesis are inserted into plasmid. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 Cystic fibrosis is the most common fatal genetic disease in the United States. It occurs when a child receives a mutated CFTR gene from both parents. As a result, mucus builds up and damages organs, including the lungs and pancreas. In which of the following situations should the parents of a child be the most concerned that their child has cystic fibrosis? Both parents could be heterozygous carriers for cystic fibrosis. One parent is African American and the other is Asian American. One parent has a cousin who lived with cystic fibrosis for many years. After genetic screening, one parent is positive and one parent is negative. At six months of age, the child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and foul-smelling stools. Which statement supports the theory of natural selection? There are cumulative changes in populations of species over time. All organisms in a species have the same genetic makeup; however, only the fittest survive. The physical changes acquired over an organism’s lifetime will be inherited by its offspring. Organisms genetically best suited to survive in a changing environment will produce offspring. Organisms with the traits best suited to reproduce in a changing environment will perpetuate the species. After a disease spreads within a population, a small number of surviving organisms remain in the ecosystem and may pass down surviving traits to offspring. This phenomenon is known as bottleneck effect. founder effect. tragedy of the commons. mutation. random mating. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, about 0.0763 of the general population carries the recessive trait coding for a certain disease. If there are 200 individuals in a certain group, how many of them will be non- expressing carriers of the allele? 15 28 30 171 198 The level of organization from most specific to broadest within the biosphere is organism → population → community → ecosystem → biosphere. organism → community → population → ecosystem → biosphere. organism → population → ecosystem → community → biosphere. organism → population → community → biosphere → ecosystem. organism → community → population → biosphere → ecosystem. A type III organism could be described as having several mates to improve odds of having more offspring. having multiple offspring at once to enhance odds of survival. having offspring consistently and in large numbers over its lifetime. having offspring sporadically but in small numbers over its lifetime. having one or two offspring several years apart to enhance odds of survival. An example of a crucial abiotic feature of an ecosystem is the types of minerals in soil. number of predators. types of animals that migrate. types of decomposers. number of producers. A scientist took water from a tank holding an injured minnow and put it in the tank of a whole group of minnows. As soon as the water was added to the new tank, all the minnows in the tank started hiding near the bottom of the tank or acting more vigilantly. This behavior only happens when water from a tank holding an injured minnow is added to a tank holding healthy minnows. What behavior is occurring in this scenario? Courtship Migration Fixed action patterns Circadian rhythms Communication A scientist was studying sticklebacks and noticed male sticklebacks, which have red bellies, act aggressively towards other male sticklebacks. They will also act aggressively towards anything red, like other fish or even a truck. However, they do not act aggressively towards female sticklebacks, which do not have a red belly. This is an example of spatial learning. imprinting. innate learning. associative learning. cognition. An example of a competitive relationship would be a virus hijacking a host cell to reproduce. dolphins and sea birds pinning a school of fish to have a feeding frenzy. weeds choking out other plants in a garden. bees collecting nectar to make honey while pollinating flowers. remora hanging around sharks to catch the leftovers of a meal. A scientist was looking through ecological data to find an example of a keystone species. Which of the following is an example of a keystone species? Sea urchins, in the absence of predators, destroying kelp forests creating urchin barrens Wolves being reintroduced to Yellowstone Park reduces the number of elk, which increases the number of trees Hawthorn fruit flies splitting into two populations after apples are introduced Zebra mussels outcompeting native species in the Great Lakes Black peppered moths becoming more common during industrialization and classic peppered moths becoming more common with clean air regulations A paramecium that divides once per day was placed onto a culture dish on day 0. On day 7, there were 128 paramecia. What is the growth rate of this population? 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 What kind of intermolecular forces act between a hydrogen bromide (HBr) molecule and a sodium cation (Na+) in an aqueous solution? Dispersion and ion-dipole Dispersion and dipole-dipole Dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding Ion-dipole and dipole-dipole Ion-dipole and hydrogen bonding In the chemical equation below, which species would be classified as Brønsted-Lowry acids? C6H5 OH + CH3NH− → C6H5 O− + CH3NH2 C6H5 OH and C6H5 O− CH3NH− and C6H5 O− CH3NH− and CH3NH2 C6H5 OH and CH3NH2 C6H5 OH and CH3NH− Consider the following chemical reaction: Br2 (g) + OCl2 (g) ↔ BrOCl (g) + BrCl (g) Exactly 1.00 mol of each gas is placed in a 100.0-L flask, and the mixture is allowed to react. At a certain temperature, the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 0.400. The equilibrium concentration of Br2 is 0.00225M. 0.00368M. 0.00780M. 0.0100M. 0.0123M. For the reaction at equilibrium 4HCl (g) + O2 (g) ↔ 2H2 O (g) + 2CO2 (g), which of the following situations will occur if some CO2 (g) is removed from the reaction? More H2 O (g) will be consumed. More H2 O (g) and CO2 (g) will be produced. More HCl (g) and O2 (g) will be produced. More HCl (g) and O2 (g) will be produced. No change will occur. One mole of nitrogen gas initially at 10 atm is allowed to expand at constant temperature until the pressure is 1.0 atm. Will the entropy change be positive or negative for this process, and why? Positive; the gas expands into a larger volume. Positive; there is an increase in the number of gas molecules. Negative; the gas is compressed into a smaller volume. Negative; the gas expands into a larger volume. Negative; there is a decrease in the number of gas molecules. Consider the following reactions: 3S (s) + 2H2 O (g) → 2H2 S (g) + SO2 (g) ΔH∘ = 147 kJ/mol S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g) ΔH∘ = −296 kJ/mol What is the enthalpy change for this process? 2H2 S (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2SO2 (g) + 2H2 O (g) −14 kJ/mol −739 kJ/mol −1035 kJ/mol 443 kJ/mol 739 kJ/mol Which of the following statement(s) about entropy is/are true? Entropy increases when ice melts into water. Entropy decreases when a solid dissolves in water. Entropy decreases when a gas dissolves in water. I only II only I and II I and III II and III Which option best describes the change in particle movement and spacing when thermal energy, or heat, is added to a system? Faster and closer together Faster and farther apart Faster but no change in spacing Slower and farther apart Slower and closer together The reaction between carbon monoxide (CO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is found to have a rate law that is zero order with respect to carbon monoxide and second order with respect to nitrogen dioxide. What is the rate law equation for the reaction? Rate = 2 [NO2] Rate = 2k [NO2] Rate = 2 [CO] [NO2] Rate = k[NO2]2 Rate = k [CO] [NO2]2 A change in which of the following will reduce the activation energy of a reaction? Decrease in concentration of reactants Decrease in concentration of products Decrease in the product temperature Increase in concentration of products Increase in reactant temperature What is the balanced form of the equation below in an acidic solution? BaO4− (aq) + C2O42− (aq) → Ba2+ (aq) + CO2 (aq) 16H+ (aq) + BaO4− (aq) + C2O 2− (aq) → Ba2+ (aq) + 8H2 O− (aq) + CO2− (aq) 16H (aq) + 2BaO4− (aq) + C2O 2− (aq) → 2Ba2+ (aq) + 8H2 O− (aq) + CO2− (aq) 16H (aq) + 2BaO4− (aq) + 5C2O42− (aq) → 2Ba (aq) + 8H2 O (aq) + 10CO2− (aq) 16H (aq) + 2BaO4− (aq) + 5C2O42− (aq) → 2Ba (aq) + 16H2 O (aq) + 10CO2− (aq) 16H+ (aq) + BaO4− (aq) + C2O42− (aq) → Ba2+ (aq) + H2 O− (aq) + CO2− (aq) Which half reactions, obtained from the balanced equation below, show oxidation and reduction, respectively, in a basic solution? 3SO32− (aq) + H2 O (aq) + 2ZnO4− (aq) → 3SO42− (aq) + 2ZnO2 (aq) + 2OH (aq) 8H2 O + 2ZnO4− + 6e− → 2ZnO2 + 4H2 O + 8OH− and 6OH− + 3SO 2− 3 + 3H2 O → 3SO42− + 6H2 O + 6e− − − 8H2 O + 2ZnO4− + 6e → 2ZnO2 + 2H2 O + 6OH and 4OH− + 3SO32− + 2H2 O → 3SO42− − + 4H2 O + 6e− − 8H2 O + 2ZnO4− + 3e → 2ZnO2 + 4H2 O + 8OH and 6OH− + 3SO 2− 3 + 3H2 O → 3SO42− − + 6H2 O + 3e− − 8H2 O + 2ZnO4− + 3e → 2ZnO2 + 2H2 O + 6OH and 4OH− + 3SO 2− 3 + 2H2 O → 3SO42− − + 4H2 O + 3e− − 8H2 O + ZnO4− + 6e → ZnO2 + 4H2 O + 8OH and 6OH− + 3SO 2− 3 + H2 O → 3SO42− + H2 O + 6e− What is the oxidation number of iron in the compound Fe2 O72− ? 3 6 8 12 24 The cell potential of a cell using Au/Au3+ and Be/Be2+ was found to equal +3.49 V. If E0 for the Au half-cell is +1.50 V, what is the E0 of the Be half cell? +1.99 V +4.99V −4.99 V +5.97 V +3.98V Which option best describes a galvanic cell? A spontaneous reaction that produces electricity with reduction occurring at the anode A spontaneous reaction that produces electricity with oxidation occurring at the anode A nonspontaneous reaction that produces electricity with oxidation occurring at the cathode A nonspontaneous reaction that produces electricity with oxidation occurring at the anode A nonspontaneous reaction that produces electricity with reduction occurring at the cathode Which subatomic particle or structure distinguishes elements from each other? Electron Neutrino Neutron Positron Proton An atom has 20 protons in its nucleus. What is the correct electronic configuration of this atom in the stable state? 1s 22s 22p63s 23p63d 2 1s 22s 22p43s 23p34s 23d 5 1s 22s 22p63s 23p34s 03d 5 1s 22s 22p63s 23p64s 2 1s 22s 22p63d 10 Which orbital contains two nodal planes? dyz 2pz 1s 2py 2s What is the Lewis dot diagram of nitric acid (HNO3)? Which theory explained the motion of electrons around the nucleus and the concept of electromagnetic radiation? Quantum theory Rutherford’s theory Dalton’s theory Thomson’s theory Bohr’s theory What does quantum theory help to study? Nature of matter and energy at the atomic and subatomic levels Motion of electrons around the nucleus in specific orbitals Presence of a positive nucleus in the atom Movement of positive and neutral particles in the nucleus Existence of atoms as the smallest particles in the universe Why is the trend of ionization energy not followed in group 2 and group 15 elements? Low magnitude of nuclear charge Presence of half-filled and full-filled shells Absence of metallic character Greater atomic radius Low shielding effect Why is fluorine considered the most electronegative element? It can exist in various states at room temperature. It has the greatest atomic size among halogens. It is arranged in group 17. It has 5 electrons in its 2p shell. It has partially filled the 2s shell. Which of the following will completely balance the nuclear reaction? Cu63 + H1 → Cl38 + + 29 1 17 n1 ; Al25 0 13 0 ; Al24 0 ; Si28 n1 ; Al26 0 13 0 ; Si27 Which set of decay processes correctly correspond to the nuclear equations shown below? Po214 → Pb210 + He4 84 82 2 C14 → N14 + e0 6 7 −1 Alpha decay; alpha decay Alpha decay; beta decay Alpha decay; gamma decay Beta decay; beta decay Gamma decay; beta decay An alpha particle is composed of a pair of protons and an electron. a neutron. a positron and an electron. an electron. a pair of protons and neutrons. Which statement best describes the process of fission? It consists of the emission of particles or rays from the nuclei of a radioactive element. It requires that the atomic nuclei of atoms fuse together, releasing energy in the process. It consists of the transformation of an unstable atom that results in the emission of radiation. It consists of the decay of radioactive atoms, in which an unstable nucleus loses energy by emitting radiation. It occurs when atoms split up, releasing great amounts of energy, either naturally or by bombardment of neutrons. Which laboratory technique can be used to purify or separate solid components from a homogeneous mixture? Crystallization Distillation Extraction Evaporation Filtration Which list is arranged in order of increasing accuracy of the chemical equipment for delivering 25 mL of a solution? 25-mL beaker, 50-mL graduated cylinder, 25-mL pipet, 50-mL buret 50-mL graduated cylinder, 50-mL buret, 25-mL beaker, 25-mL pipet 25-mL beaker, 50-mL graduated cylinder, 50-mL buret, 25-mL pipet 25-mL pipet, 50-mL graduated cylinder, 50-mL buret, 25-mL beaker 50-mL buret, 50-mL graduated cylinder, 25-mL beaker, 25-mL pipet Which statement concerning random errors when carrying out a chemistry lab is correct? Random errors result in errors in measurement values due to some human mistake; they affect the measurement’s accuracy. Random errors result in differences in a measurement’s true value in one direction; they affect the measurement’s precision. Random errors result in errors in measurement values that are not reduced by repeating the procedure; they affect the measurement’s accuracy. Random errors result in differences in a measurement’s true value due to errors in the calibration of chemical equipment; they affect the measurement’s accuracy. Random errors result in differences on either side of a measurement’s true value; they affect the measurement’s precision. Consider the following organic reaction types: Polymerization Addition Substitution Cracking Which of these reaction types are possible for alkanes? I only III only II and III only III and IV only I, II, III, and IV How would the mechanism of the reaction of the C=C in propene (C3H6 ) compare to the mechanism of the reaction of the C=O in propanal (C3H6 O) when reacted with H2 gas in the presence of an Ni catalyst? Propene would undergo electrophilic substitution, forming C3H5+ , while propanal would undergo nucleophilic addition, forming C3H7 O−. Propene would undergo homolytic fission, formingC3H6∙ while propanal would undergo nucleophilic addition, forming C3H7 O−. Each would undergo nucleophilic addition, forming C3H7− . Propene would undergo electrophilic addition, forming C3H7+ , while propanal would undergo nucleophilic addition, forming C3H7 O−. Each would undergo electrophilic addition, forming C3H7+ . What is the major product when 2-methyl-1-butene below reacts with a concentrated solution of hydrogen chloride? Select the choice that accurately lists the four organic molecules below in order from lowest to highest boiling point. Propanal Propanol Methyl methanoate Methoxymethane 4, 3, 2, 1 4, 3, 1, 2 3, 4, 2, 1 2, 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 Which of the following molecules is the most soluble in water? Toluene (C7H8 ) Propane (C3H8 ) Butene (C4H8 ) Propanol (C3H7 OH) Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4 ) Chromatography and distillation are techniques for separation of components of a liquid mixture. Which of the following pairs matches the technique with the physical property used for separation? chromatography: particle size; distillation: volatility chromatography: affinity; distillation: particle size chromatography: volatility; distillation: particle size chromatography: volatility; distillation: affinity chromatography: affinity; distillation: volatility Which of the following is a “real life” example of chirality? Sides of a face Shoes in a pair Halves of an apple Earth’s hemispheres Lenses in glasses Which carbons are chiral in the molecule shown below? 2, 3, 6, 7 2, 3, 6 2, 6, 7 2, 3 3, 6 What type of isomers does the isomeric pair of 2-chlorobutane below represent? Conformers Enantiomers Geometric isomers Constitutional isomers Structural isomers Which of the following pairs of molecules are conformational isomers? 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 only 2 only What is the IUPAC name for this structure? 2,5-dimethylhexane 1,4-dimethylhexane 1,5-methyl-hexane 1,1,4,-trimethylpentane 2,5-dimethylpentane What is the product of the reaction shown below? Which of the following is the product Y in the reaction above? Which product forms as a result of the reaction of 3-pentanone and methyllithium? Ethene reacts with what compound and conditions to form ethanol? It reacts with O2 in the presence of heat. It reacts with O2 in the presence of light (hv). It reacts with H2 O (g) in the presence of an acid catalyst. It reacts with CO2 in the presence of H2 O (l). It reacts with H2 in the presence of light (hv). In the SN 2 nucleophilic substitution reaction of alkyl halides, the carbon acts as an electrophile and the halogen acts as the nucleophile. the carbon acts as an electrophile and the nucleophile substitutes the halogen. the carbon acts as a nucleophile and the halogen acts as the leaving group. the carbon acts as a nucleophile and the electrophile substitutes the halogen. the carbon develops no charge and the leaving group is the halide ion. Bromoethane is reacted with potassium cyanide in alcoholic solution and the product is hydrolyzed with acid. alc. KCN, Hydrolysis H+ CH3CH2Br −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ The final product is propanol. ethanoic acid. 2-bromopropanoic acid. propanoic acid. ethanol. The set of aldehydes that will undergo self-oxidation-reduction on heating with concentrated potassium hydroxide is HCHO and C6H5 CHO. HCHO and C6H5 CH2CHO. C6H5 CHO and C6H5 CH2CHO. C6H5 CH2CHO and CH3CHO. CH3CHO and C6H5 CHO. What is the final product of the reaction shown below? R ed P, Br2 CH3CH2COOH −−−−−−→ Hydrolysis CH3CH2Br CH3CH2COBr CH3CHBrCOBr CH2BrCHBrCOOH CH3CBr2COOH Which has greater acid strength, ethanoic acid or phenol? Ethanoic acid, as the ethanoate ion is highly unstable. Phenol, as the phenoxide ion is highly stable. Ethanoic acid, as the ethanoate ion has more than two unequally contributing resonance structures. Phenol, as the phenoxide ion has more than two equally contributing resonance structures. Ethanoic acid, as the ethanoate ion has two equally contributing resonance structures. Which compound has the greatest pKa? CH4 NH3 H2 O CH3COOH CH3OH Why is acetic acid a stronger acid than methanol? Acetic acid’s conjugate base is stabilized by resonance, but methanol’s conjugate base is not. Methanol’s conjugate base is stabilized by resonance, but acetic acid’s conjugate base is not. Acetic acid’s structure is more stable than methanol’s structure. Acetic acid donates multiple acidic protons. Methanol donates multiple acidic protons. How does the pH of a 1.0M solution of phenol compare to the pH of a 1.0M solution of cyclohexanol? The phenol solution has a lower pH, as its conjugate base has a higher negative charge per atom than the conjugate base of cyclohexanol. The phenol solution has a lower pH, as it deprotonates to form an ion with four resonance structures. But cyclohexanol forms only one resonance structure. The phenol and cyclohexanol solutions have the same pH, as each deprotonate to form an ion with one resonance structure. The phenol and cyclohexanol solutions have the same pH, as each deprotonate to form an ion with four resonance structures. The phenol solution has a higher pH, as its conjugate base has a lower negative charge per atom than the conjugate base of cyclohexanol. What is the correct order of pKa values? CH3CH2COOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH3CH3COH > CH3CH3CHOH > CH3CH2OH CH3CH2OH > CH3CH3CHOH > CH3CH3CH3COH > CH3CH2COOH > CH3COOH CH3CH3CH3COH > CH3CH3CHOH > CH3CH2OH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH CH3CH2OH > CH3CH3CHOH > CH3CH3CH3COH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH CH3CH3CH3COH > CH3CH3CHOH > CH3CH2OH > CH3CH2COOH > CH3COOH Which of the following is the strongest acid? What do the following images represent? Benzene structures Structural isomers Resonance structures Stereoisomers Enantiomers Which of the following is a characteristic unique to aromatic molecules? The structure of the molecule is cyclic A lower electronic energy due to delocalization of pi electron Each atom on the ring has an unhybridized p orbital Unhybridized p orbitals overlap to form parallel orbitals in a ring The molecule is a hydrocarbon The bond length between the single bond of two carbons is 1.54 Å, and the double bond of two carbons is 1.34 Å. The bond length of a benzene molecule is 1.09 Å 1.20 Å 1.34 Å 1.40 Å 1.54 Å Using the Körner’s absolute method, how many isomers are formed by nitration of m-xylene? 0 1 2 3 4 Why does phenol have a Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) signal greater than benzene? Phenol has an electron withdrawing group Benzene has an unsaturated hydrocarbon chain Phenol has an electron donating group Benzene has an aromatic current Phenol has an aromatic current Perceptual Ability Test Choose the correct END VIEW. Choose the correct TOP VIEW. Choose the correct FRONT VIEW. Choose the correct END VIEW. Choose the correct TOP VIEW. Choose the correct TOP VIEW. Choose the correct TOP VIEW. Choose the correct FRONT VIEW. Choose the correct TOP VIEW. Choose the correct END VIEW. Choose the correct FRONT VIEW. Choose the correct TOP VIEW. Choose the correct END VIEW. 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 2 < 1 < 4 < 3 2 < 3 < 4 < 1 4 < 2 < 3 < 1 3 < 2 < 4 < 1 4 < 2 < 1 < 3 2 < 4 < 3 < 1 3 < 4 < 2 < 1 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 1 < 2 < 4 < 3 4< 2 < 1 < 3 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 1 < 4 < 3 < 2 4 < 1 < 2 < 3 4 < 1 < 3 < 2 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 3 < 4 < 1 < 2 3 < 4 < 2 < 1 4 < 3 < 1 < 2 3 < 2 < 1 < 4 2 < 1 < 4 < 3 4 < 2 < 3 < 1 2 < 4 < 1 < 3 1 < 2 < 4 < 3 3 < 4 < 1 < 2 3 < 2 < 1 < 4 3 < 2 < 4 < 1 3 < 1 < 2 < 4 4 < 2 < 3 < 1 2 < 4 < 3 < 1 2 < 4 < 1< 3 2 < 3 < 4 < 1 4 < 3 < 1 < 2 3 < 4 < 1 < 2 3 < 1 < 4 < 2 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 2 < 1 < 4 < 3 2 < 4 < 1 < 3 4 < 2 < 1 < 3 4 < 1 < 2 < 3 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 3 < 4 < 1 < 2 4 < 2 < 3 < 1 3 < 2 < 4 < 1 3 < 4 < 2 < 1 3 < 1 < 4 < 2 3 < 2 < 1 < 4 3 < 1 < 2 < 4 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 3 < 1 < 4 < 2 3 < 4 < 1 < 2 4 < 3 < 1 < 2 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 3 < 1 < 2 < 4 1 < 3 < 4 < 2 2 < 1 < 3 < 4 1 < 3 < 4 < 2 4 < 3 < 1 < 2 3 < 1 < 2 < 4 3 < 4 < 1 < 2 In Figure A, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes In Figure A, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes In Figure A, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes In Figure B, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes 6 cubes In Figure C, how many cubes have of their sides painted? None 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes In Figure C, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes In Figure C, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes None 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes In Figure D, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes In Figure E, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes In Figure E, how many cubes have of their sides painted? None 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes In Figure E, how many cubes have of their sides painted? 1 cube 2 cubes 3 cubes 4 cubes 5 cubes Reading Comprehension Test 1 Wildfire smoke is a mixture of air pollutants, of which particulate matter is the principal public health threat. The initial basis for understanding wildfire smoke health effects was derived primarily from studies of ambient air pollutants, specifically particulate matter. Extensive scientific evidence has demonstrated health effects in response to short-term (i.e., daily) particulate matter exposure ranging from eye and respiratory tract irritation to more serious effects, including reduced lung function, pulmonary inflammation, bronchitis, exacerbation of asthma and other lung diseases, exacerbation of cardiovascular diseases such as heart failure, and even premature death. Recent studies examining the health effects of wildfire smoke provide evidence of health effects consistent with those reported for particulate matter. However, there is only limited evidence about the potential health impacts due to cumulative exposures from repeated, multi-day wildfire smoke exposures or multiple, consecutive fire seasons. 2 Although a large population can be exposed to smoke during a wildfire event, most healthy adults and children will recover quickly from wildfire smoke exposure. Certain life stages and populations may, however, be at greater risk of experiencing health effects, including people with respiratory or cardiovascular diseases, children and older adults, pregnant women, people of lower socioeconomic status, and outdoor workers. 3 The science of wildfire behavior and management is complex and highly technical. Wildfire smoke produced from combustion of natural biomass contains thousands of individual compounds, including particulate matter, carbon dioxide, water vapor, carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and other organic chemicals, nitrogen oxides, and trace minerals. Wildfires can move into the wildland urban interface, burning homes and structures and thereby consuming man-made materials in addition to natural fuels. More research is needed to understand potential health impacts of breathing this complex mix of natural and man-made material emissions. 4 Wildfire behavior will vary depending on natural fuel type; fires in forest fuels can range from mild to severe and can spread very slowly or extremely rapidly depending on weather and fuel conditions. Wildfires in forests can last for weeks or months and are often the type that result in the most severe and longest-duration air quality impacts. Smoke levels in populated areas can be difficult to predict. 5 Most of the tens of thousands of wildfires in the United States are suppressed when they first start. Those that continue past the initial suppression attempt can become large, of long duration, and a significant source of smoke. An Incident Management Team is usually engaged on these types of fires, guided by the landowner/manager/agency administrator and pre-existing land management plans. 6 In areas where the public is experiencing wildfire smoke, public health and air quality agencies should provide advice on strategies to limit exposure, which include staying indoors, limiting physical activity, reducing indoor air pollution sources, effectively using air conditioners and air filters or cleaners, creating cleaner air shelters, and using respiratory protection appropriately. 7 The most common advisory during a smoke episode is to stay indoors, where people can better control their environment. Whether at home or in a public space, indoor environments that have filtered air and climate control can provide relief from smoke and heat. High-efficiency heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning (HVAC) filters (rated MERV 13 or higher) in systems that can accommodate them can help reduce particle concentrations indoors. 8 Appropriately sized room air cleaners can also reduce particle concentrations in individual rooms. It is important to choose a room air cleaner that produces little or no ozone. The California Air Resources Board provides a list of air cleaners that meet the ozone emissions limit. High-efficiency filters and room air cleaners are more effective with more frequent operation. Individuals can use a room air cleaner in a designated room in the house to create a protected environment called a “clean room” at home. Public cleaner-air shelters and spaces can provide relief from smoke for individuals who do not have adequate air filtration or cooling equipment at home. When traveling between indoor locations with cleaner air, people can reduce particle levels in vehicles by keeping windows and vents closed and operating the air conditioning in “recirculate” mode. 9 Properly wearing a NIOSH-certified N95 or P100 particulate respirator that fits closely to the face can help reduce personal exposure to wildfire smoke and ash. Adults who must remain outdoors in unhealthy air for extended periods due to work or other factors may particularly benefit from using this strategy. People should avoid using masks that do not provide proper protection, such as single-strap dust masks or surgical masks. Respirators are not made to fit children and will not protect them from breathing wildfire smoke. 10 Smoke levels can vary throughout the day, so people may be able to plan necessary trips outside during times when the air is less smoky or minimize their time in smoke-impacted areas. Smoke outreach and forecasting tools can help people make decisions about when and where they can go to minimize their smoke exposures. When smoke levels are especially high, local officials may take actions such as closing schools or canceling public events. Where evacuation is necessary because of fire danger, public health officials should consider appropriate strategies to reduce smoke exposure during the evacuation, at evacuation centers, and after allowing evacuees to return home. 11 The goal of air quality monitoring during a wildfire smoke event is to relay information to the public in a timely manner so people can make decisions about how to protect their health. Tools for measuring and estimating air quality conditions and conveying them to the public include the Air Quality Index, visual range scale, and other approaches. The Current Conditions Map provides a one-stop place for the public on current wildfire and air quality information. School-focused guidance addresses outdoor activities, and the Air Quality Flag Program uses a visual flag alert for schools and organizations to take health protective actions. 12 When requested by the land manager responding to a large wildfire, the Interagency Wildland Fire Air Quality Response Program will deploy an Air Resource Advisor (ARA) to the Incident Management Team. These technical specialists are trained to monitor air quality, analyze smoke impacts, model future smoke impacts, and provide smoke outlooks for impacted communities that will help public health officials in advising the public. Areas without continuous particulate matter monitors may be able to get temporary, portable monitors through their federal, state, tribal, or local air quality agencies or the U.S. Forest Service, especially when associated with a wildfire incident with an assigned ARA. Emerging technology has expanded sources for air quality information, including miniaturized sensors for fine particulate matter (PM2.5), mobile air quality monitoring systems, and data fusion products. However, there are many unknowns regarding their precision, accuracy, and reliability, especially under wildfire conditions. Therefore, sensor data and data fusion products should be considered supplemental information, but they need to be put into context with the help of nearby regulatory monitors or short-term monitors, air quality index estimates, satellite data, and daily ARA Smoke Outlooks. 13 Communications planning for recommendations should address not only messages and actions during a wildfire event but preparations to make before fires occur and guidance for cleaning up after a fire. Many factors must be considered, so these recommendations should be adapted to each specific situation. Areas with established air quality programs typically have a communication plan for wildfire smoke events. 14 In areas where fires are likely to occur, state and local public health agencies should consider running pre-season public service announcements or news and social media announcements to advise the public on preparing for the fire season. During smoke periods, public advisories based on air quality levels should address special needs of at-risk populations (in the Air Quality Index, the term “sensitive groups” is used), including people with heart or lung disease, older adults, children, pregnant women, and people of lower socioeconomic status. Other concerns include advisories for outdoor workers, prolonged smoke events, and protections for pets and livestock. 15 Preparation is key. Recommendations to the public at risk for smoke exposure include advising preparations in advance of wildfire season, such as maintaining nonperishable groceries that don’t require cooking. People with chronic diseases should check with their health care provider about precautions ahead of smoke events and have an adequate supply of medication available; asthmatics should have a written asthma action plan. 16 Recommended steps for public health officials to take before fires start include checking the fire risk in monthly outlooks at the National Interagency Fire Center website and, especially if high, communicating risk to the public; considering how to implement the recommended actions in the guide; preparing a communication plan; and forming partnerships with important partners or stakeholders (e.g., air quality agencies, local health providers, the media). 17 Even after the worst of the fire and smoke is over, exposure to lingering smoke and ash from a wildfire can cause significant health effects in both healthy and at-risk populations, such as respiratory irritation, heat-related illness and emotional stress, as well as physical stress or injuries from cleanup activities. In post-fire situations in which air quality is poor due to smoke and ash residue in or near affected structures, ventilation and other protective measures are advised during cleanup. Which of the following statements is true about wildfires? They tend to last from months to years. Their impact on air quality is less severe than that of urban fires. They spread very rapidly. They produce the most volume of smoke in their early stages. Their spread depends partly on weather conditions. Wildfire Smoke and Public Health 1 Wildfire smoke is a mixture of air pollutants, of which particulate matter is the principal public health threat. The initial basis for understanding wildfire smoke health effects was derived primarily from studies of ambient air pollutants, specifically particulate matter. Extensive scientific evidence has demonstrated health effects in response to short-term (i.e., daily) particulate matter exposure ranging from eye and respiratory tract irritation to more serious effects, including reduced lung function, pulmonary inflammation, bronchitis, exacerbation of asthma and other lung diseases, exacerbation of cardiovascular diseases such as heart failure, and even premature death. Recent studies examining the health effects of wildfire smoke provide evidence of health effects consistent with those reported for particulate matter. However, there is only limited evidence about the potential health impacts due to cumulative exposures from repeated, multi-day wildfire smoke exposures or multiple, consecutive fire seasons. 2 Although a large population can be exposed to smoke during a wildfire event, most healthy adults and children will recover quickly from wildfire smoke exposure. Certain life stages and populations may, however, be at greater risk of experiencing health effects, including people with respiratory or cardiovascular diseases, children and older adults, pregnant women, people of lower socioeconomic status, and outdoor workers. 3 The science of wildfire behavior and management is complex and highly technical. Wildfire smoke produced from combustion of natural biomass contains thousands of individual compounds, including particulate matter, carbon dioxide, water vapor, carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and other organic chemicals, nitrogen oxides, and trace minerals. Wildfires can move into the wildland urban interface, burning homes and structures and thereby consuming man-made materials in addition to natural fuels. More research is needed to understand potential health impacts of breathing this complex mix of natural and man-made material emissions. 4 Wildfire behavior will vary depending on natural fuel type; fires in forest fuels can range from mild to severe and can spread very slowly or extremely rapidly depending on weather and fuel conditions. Wildfires in forests can last for weeks or months and are often the type that result in the most severe and longest-duration air quality impacts. Smoke levels in populated areas can be difficult to predict. 5 Most of the tens of thousands of wildfires in the United States are suppressed when they first start. Those that continue past the initial suppression attempt can become large, of long duration, and a significant source of smoke. An Incident Management Team is usually engaged on these types of fires, guided by the landowner/manager/agency administrator and pre-existing land management plans. 6 In areas where the public is experiencing wildfire smoke, public health and air quality agencies should provide advice on strategies to limit exposure, which include staying indoors, limiting physical activity, reducing indoor air pollution sources, effectively using air conditioners and air filters or cleaners, creating cleaner air shelters, and using respiratory protection appropriately. 7 The most common advisory during a smoke episode is to stay indoors, where people can better control their environment. Whether at home or in a public space, indoor environments that have filtered air and climate control can provide relief from smoke and heat. High-efficiency heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning (HVAC) filters (rated MERV 13 or higher) in systems that can accommodate them can help reduce particle concentrations indoors. 8 Appropriately sized room air cleaners can also reduce particle concentrations in individual rooms. It is important to choose a room air cleaner that produces little or no ozone. The California Air Resources Board provides a list of air cleaners that meet the ozone emissions limit. High-efficiency filters and room air cleaners are more effective with more frequent operation. Individuals can use a room air cleaner in a designated room in the house to create a protected environment called a “clean room” at home. Public cleaner-air shelters and spaces can provide relief from smoke for individuals who do not have adequate air filtration or cooling equipment at home. When traveling between indoor locations with cleaner air, people can reduce particle levels in vehicles by keeping windows and vents closed and operating the air conditioning in “recirculate” mode. 9 Properly wearing a NIOSH-certified N95 or P100 particulate respirator that fits closely to the face can help reduce personal exposure to wildfire smoke and ash. Adults who must remain outdoors in unhealthy air for extended periods due to work or other factors may particularly benefit from using this strategy. People should avoid using masks that do not provide proper protection, such as single-strap dust masks or surgical masks. Respirators are not made to fit children and will not protect them from breathing wildfire smoke. 10 Smoke levels can vary throughout the day, so people may be able to plan necessary trips outside during times when the air is less smoky or minimize their time in smoke-impacted areas. Smoke outreach and forecasting tools can help people make decisions about when and where they can go to minimize their smoke exposures. When smoke levels are especially high, local officials may take actions such as closing schools or canceling public events. Where evacuation is necessary because of fire danger, public health officials should consider appropriate strategies to reduce smoke exposure during the evacuation, at evacuation centers, and after allowing evacuees to return home. 11 The goal of air quality monitoring during a wildfire smoke event is to relay information to the public in a timely manner so people can make decisions about how to protect their health. Tools for measuring and estimating air quality conditions and conveying them to the public include the Air Quality Index, visual range scale, and other approaches. The Current Conditions Map provides a one-stop place for the public on current wildfire and air quality information. School-focused guidance addresses outdoor activities, and the Air Quality Flag Program uses a visual flag alert for schools and organizations to take health protective actions. 12 When requested by the land manager responding to a large wildfire, the Interagency Wildland Fire Air Quality Response Program will deploy an Air Resource Advisor (ARA) to the Incident Management Team. These technical specialists are trained to monitor air quality, analyze smoke impacts, model future smoke impacts, and provide smoke outlooks for impacted communities that will help public health officials in advising the public. Areas without continuous particulate matter monitors may be able to get temporary, portable monitors through their federal, state, tribal, or local air quality agencies or the U.S. Forest Service, especially when associated with a wildfire incident with an assigned ARA. Emerging technology has expanded sources for air quality information, including miniaturized sensors for fine particulate matter (PM2.5), mobile air quality monitoring systems, and data fusion products. However, there are many unknowns regarding their precision, accuracy, and reliability, especially under wildfire conditions. Therefore, sensor data and data fusion products should be considered supplemental information, but they need to be put into context with the help of nearby regulatory monitors or short-term monitors, air quality index estimates, satellite data, and daily ARA Smoke Outlooks. 13 Communications planning for recommendations should address not only messages and actions during a wildfire event but preparations to make before fires occur and guidance for cleaning up after a fire. Many factors must be considered, so these recommendations should be adapted to each specific situation. Areas with established air quality programs typically have a communication plan for wildfire smoke events. 14 In areas where fires are likely to occur, state and local public health agencies should consider running pre-season public service announcements or news and social media announcements to advise the public on preparing for the fire season. During smoke periods, public advisories based on air quality levels should address special needs of at-risk populations (in the Air Quality Index, the term “sensitive groups” is used), including people with heart or lung disease, older adults, children, pregnant women, and people of lower socioeconomic status. Other concerns include advisories for outdoor workers, prolonged smoke events, and protections for pets and livestock. 15 Preparation is key. Recommendations to the public at risk for smoke exposure include advising preparations in advance of wildfire season, such as maintaining nonperishable groceries that don’t require cooking. People with chronic diseases should check with their health care provider about precautions ahead of smoke events and have an adequate supply of medication available; asthmatics should have a written asthma action plan. What is a “clean room”? Any room in which the windows and doors have been sealed An area in a public shelter that is equipped with a high-capacity HVAC system A decontamination area for people who must remain outdoors in unhealthy air for extended time periods A designated room in a house with an air cleaner A hospital room equipped with supplemental oxygen cardiovascular diseases, children and older adults, pregnant women, people of lower socioeconomic status, and outdoor workers. 3 The science of wildfire behavior and management is complex and highly technical. Wildfire smoke produced from combustion of natural biomass contains thousands of individual compounds, including particulate matter, carbon dioxide, water vapor, carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and other organic chemicals, nitrogen oxides, and trace minerals. Wildfires can move into the wildland urban interface, burning homes and structures and thereby consuming man-made materials in addition to natural fuels. More research is needed to understand potential health impacts of breathing this complex mix of natural and man-made material emissions. 4 Wildfire behavior will vary depending on natural fuel type; fires in forest fuels can range from mild to severe and can spread very slowly or extremely rapidly depending on weather and fuel conditions. Wildfires in forests can last for weeks or months and are often the type that result in the most severe and longest-duration air quality impacts. Smoke levels in populated areas can be difficult to predict. 5 Most of the tens of thousands of wildfires in the United States are suppressed when they first start. Those that continue past the initial suppression attempt can become large, of long duration, and a significant source of smoke. An Incident Management Team is usually engaged on these types of fires, guided by the landowner/manager/agency administrator and pre-existing land management plans. 6 In areas where the public is experiencing wildfire smoke, public health and air quality agencies should provide advice on strategies to limit exposure, which include staying indoors, limiting physical activity, reducing indoor air pollution sources, effectively using air conditioners and air filters or cleaners, creating cleaner air shelters, and using respiratory protection appropriately. 7 The most common advisory during a smoke episode is to stay indoors, where people can better control their environment. Whether at home or in a public space, indoor environments that have filtered air and climate control can provide relief from smoke and heat. High-efficiency heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning (HVAC) filters (rated MERV 13 or higher) in systems that can accommodate them can help reduce particle concentrations indoors. 8 Appropriately sized room air cleaners can also reduce particle concentrations in individual rooms. It is important to choose a room air cleaner that produces little or no ozone. The California Air Resources Board provides a list of air cleaners that meet the ozone emissions limit. High-efficiency filters and room air cleaners are more effective with more frequent operation. Individuals can use a room air cleaner in a designated room in the house to create a protected environment called a “clean room” at home. Public cleaner-air shelters and spaces can provide relief from smoke for individuals who do not have adequate air filtration or cooling equipment at home. When traveling between indoor locations with cleaner air, people can reduce particle levels in vehicles by keeping windows and vents closed and operating the air conditioning in “recirculate” mode. 9 Properly wearing a NIOSH-certified N95 or P100 particulate respirator that fits closely to the face can help reduce personal exposure to wildfire smoke and ash. Adults who must remain outdoors in unhealthy air for extended periods due to work or other factors may particularly benefit from using this strategy. People should avoid using masks that do not provide proper protection, such as single-strap dust masks or surgical masks. Respirators are not made to fit children and will not protect them from breathing wildfire smoke. 10 Smoke levels can vary throughout the day, so people may be able to plan necessary trips outside during times when the air is less smoky or minimize their time in smoke-impacted areas. Smoke outreach and forecasting tools can help people make decisions about when and where they can go to minimize their smoke exposures. When smoke levels are especially high, local officials may take actions such as closing schools or canceling public events. Where evacuation is necessary because of fire danger, public health officials should consider appropriate strategies to reduce smoke exposure during the evacuation, at evacuation centers, and after allowing evacuees to return home. 11 The goal of air quality monitoring during a wildfire smoke event is to relay information to the public in a timely manner so people can make decisions about how to protect their health. Tools for measuring and estimating air quality conditions and conveying them to the public include the Air Quality Index, visual range scale, and other approaches. The Current Conditions Map provides a one-stop place for the public on current wildfire and air quality information. School-focused guidance addresses outdoor activities, and the Air Quality Flag Program uses a visual flag alert for schools and organizations to take health protective actions. 12 When requested by the land manager responding to a large wildfire, the Interagency Wildland Fire Air Quality Response Program will deploy an Air Resource Advisor (ARA) to the Incident Management Team. These technical specialists are trained to monitor air quality, analyze smoke impacts, model future smoke impacts, and provide smoke outlooks for impacted communities that will help public health officials in advising the public. Areas without continuous particulate matter monitors may be able to get temporary, portable monitors through their federal, state, tribal, or local air quality agencies or the U.S. Forest Service, especially when associated with a wildfire incident with an assigned ARA. Emerging technology has expanded sources for air quality information, including miniaturized sensors for fine particulate matter (PM2.5), mobile air quality monitoring systems, and data fusion products. However, there are many unknowns regarding their precision, accuracy, and reliability, especially under wildfire conditions. Therefore, sensor data and data fusion products should be considered supplemental information, but they need to be put into context with the help of nearby regulatory monitors or short-term monitors, air quality index estimates, satellite data, and daily ARA Smoke Outlooks. 13 Communications planning for recommendations should address not only messages and actions during a wildfire event but preparations to make before fires occur and g