(solution) EMT-B Midterm Chapters 1-23

EMT-B Midterm Chapters 1-23 Questions & Answers. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called: A. paramedic. B. advanced EMT (AEMT). C. EMT. D. EMR. If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. B. recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. determine which device the American Heart Association suggests. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. C. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D. demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. direct B. off-line C. online D. radio The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A. regional trauma center. B. American Heart Association. C. state office of EMS. D. National Registry of EMTs. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? A. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. B. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. C. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years. D. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. A. human resources department B. local public health department C. office of the medical director D. EMS administrator or chief Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids. B. interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. D. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. your local EMS protocols. B. an order from a paramedic. C. the patient's condition. D. the transport time to the hospital. EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because: A. they are trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures. B. they can initiate ALS before EMS arrival. C. the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured. D. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes. Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. State Bureau of EMS. B. EMS training officer. C. EMS medical director. D. individual EMT. Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to the disabled. B. The ADA only applies to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. C. The requirements to successfully complete an EMT program are different for those who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle B. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia C. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) D. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. paramedic. B. EMT. C. AEMT. D. EMR. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A. protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height B. community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C. the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash D. teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. the lead EMT's decision. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. local protocols. D. EMS research. The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: A. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases. B. successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) course. C. demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds. D. a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care. Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? A. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. B. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A. AED B. oral glucose for hypoglycemia C. intranasal medication administration D. use of a manually triggered ventilator Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting C. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A. EMS administrator. B. shift supervisor. C. medical director. D. field training officer. Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT: A. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway. B. control of life-threatening bleeding. C. splinting of a possible fracture. D. one- or two-rescuer CPR. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to: A. use an automatic transport ventilator. B. apply and interpret a pulse oximeter. C. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. D. perform blood glucose monitoring. EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). B. National Association of EMTs. C. individual state's EMS protocols. D. National Registry of EMTs. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. an order from a paramedic. B. the transport time to the hospital. C. the patient's condition. D. your local EMS protocols. Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients D. a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. Select one: A. self-confidence B. scene leadership C. communication D. teamwork and diplomacy Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMT B. Paramedic C. EMR D. AEMT What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates C. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. Select one: A. integrity B. patient advocacy C. patient empathy D. time management The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. the lead EMT's decision. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. local protocols. D. EMS research. National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States B. facilitate a national EMS labor group C. unify EMS providers under a single medical director D. reduce expenses at the local and state levels Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. B. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. C. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. D. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. the experiences of EMTs B. EMS research C. the opinions of physicians D. an EMS agency's fiscal resources American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. theories ready for field trial B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists C. trends in the EMS community D. evidence-based research You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. the receiving nurse or doctor b. your medical director c. the state motor vehicle department d. law enforcement personnel After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. B. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. C. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. D. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. C. touches another person without his or her consent. D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. substandard or inappropriate patient care. B. low morale and frequently missed shifts. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. punitive action and the loss of a job. Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. inanimate objects. B. direct contact. C. animals or insects. D. smoke or dust. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. B. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. C. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. A large cluster of shrubs B. Stacked empty barrels C. Behind a car door D. A concrete barricade You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. C. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. D. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. B. locally accepted protocols. C. the priorities of the medical director. D. the wishes of the general public. Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation D. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. state EMS office. B. local health district. C. EMS supervisor. D. medical director. Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Informed B. Expressed C. Formal D. Implied You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. D. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Driver's license B. Social Security card C. Voter registration card D. Insurance card In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? Select one: A. The patient is competent and signs a release form B. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. A police officer requests a copy to place on file You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. B. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. using coded medical language. B. not disclosing his or her name. C. withholding medical history data. D. refraining from objective statements. You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. negligence B. assault C. slander D. libel Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Use codes to speed communication. B. Answer questions