ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED TEST BANK LATEST VERSION 2024 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIE

Admin [COMPANY NAME] [Company address] ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED TEST BANK LATEST VERSION 2024 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED 1. 1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client? 1. Calcium chloride 2. Calcium gluconate 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) 4. Large doses of vitamin D 2. 2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item? 1. Milk 2. Water 3. Apple juice 4. Orange juice 3. 3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Decreased respirations 4. 4.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied: 1. Immediately before swimming 2.15 minutes before exposure to the sun 3. Immediately before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun 5. 5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Notifying the registered nurse 2. Discontinuing the medication 3. Informing the client that this is normal 4. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate andcalciumchloridearemedications usedforthe treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. 4. Orange juice Rationale: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer themedication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milkmayaffectabsorption of theiron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice. 1. Tinnitus Rationale: Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, andpsychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea arenot associated with salicylism. 4. At least 30 minutes beforeexposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes beforeexposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating. 3. Informing the client that this is normal Rationale: Mafenideacetateis bacteriostatic forgram-negativeandgram-positive organisms and is used to treatburns to reducebacteria present in avascular tissues. Theclient should be informed that themedication will cause local discomfort and burningand that this is a normal reaction; therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect 6. 6.) The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate(Sulfamylon) tothe site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? 1.Hyperventilation 2. Elevated blood pressure 3.Local pain at the burn site 4.Local rash at the burn site 7. 7.) Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed? 1. Platelet count 2. Triglyceride level 3. Complete blood count 4. White blood cell count 8. 8.) A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the (HCP) if the client is taking which medication? 1. Vitamin A 2. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 3. Furosemide (Lasix) 4. Phenytoin (Dilantin) 9. 9.) The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse would monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas? 1. Back 2.Axilla 3. Soles of the feet 4. Palms of the hands 10. 10.) The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for: 1. Acne 2. Eczema 3. Hair loss 4. Herpes simplex 1. Hyperven tilation Rationale: Mafenideacetate is a carbonic anhydraseinhibitor andcan suppress renalexcretion of acid, thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an acid-base imbalance (hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication should be discontinued for 1 to 2 days. Options 3 and 4 describe local ratherthan systemic effects. An elevated blood pressuremay be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury. 2. Triglyceride level Rationale: Isotretinoin can elevate triglyceride levels. Blood triglyceride levels should be measured before treatment and periodically thereafter until the effect on the triglycerides has been evaluated. Options 1, 3, and 4 do not need to be monitored specifically during this treatment. 1. Vita min A Rationale: Isotretinoinis ametabolite of vitamin Aand canproducegeneralizedintensification of isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplementsshould be discontinued beforeisotretinointherapy.Options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with the use of isotretinoin. 2. Axilla Rationale : Topicalcorticosteroids can beabsorbedinto the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions in which permeability is poor (back, palms, soles). 1. A cne Rationale : Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 areincorrect. 11. 11.) The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial- thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram- negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments? 1. "The medication is an antibacterial." 2. "The medication will help heal the burn." 3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." 4. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound." 12. 12.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During theinfusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the medication has slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action? 1. Notify the registered nurse. 2.Administer painmedicationtoreduce the discomfort. 3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gramnegativebacteria, gram- positivebacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin. 1. Notify the registered nurse. Rationale: When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administeredvia IV, greatcaremust betaken to preventthemedication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the injection site, because pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for signs of extravasation, such as redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreasedinfusion rate. If extravasationoccurs, the registerednurseneeds to be notified; he or she will then contact the health care provider. 3. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed. 4. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion. 13. 13.) The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed? 1. Echocardiography 4. Pulmonary function studies Rationale: Bleomycin is anantineoplasticmedication (Chemotheraputic Agents) that can cause interstitial pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary functionstudies along with hematological, hepatic, and renal function tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles, which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The medication needs to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication. 2.Electrocardiography 3. Cervical radiography 4. Pulmonary function studies 14. 14.) The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication? 1. Clotting time 2. Uric acid level 3. Potassium level 4. Blood glucose level 2. Uric acidlevel Rationale: Busulfan (Myleran) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemiacanproduceuricacidnephropathy, renalstones, andacute renal failure. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically related to this medication. 15. 15.) The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse who is assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication? 1. Alopecia 2. Chest pain 4. Orthostatic hypotension Rationale: A side effectspecific to etoposide is orthostatic hypotension. The client's blood pressure is monitored during the infusion. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain and pulmonary fibrosis are unrelated to this medication. 3.Pulmonary fibrosis 4. Orthostatic hypotension 16. 16.) The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for the client receiving an antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client: 1. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for headache 2. Drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amounts each evening 3. Consult with health care providers 3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations Rationale: Because antineoplastic medications lower the resistance of the body, clients must be informed not to receiveimmunizations without a HCP's approval. Clients also need to avoid contact with individuals who have recently received a live virus vaccine. Clients need to avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing products to minimize the risk of bleeding, and they need to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of toxicity and side effects. (HCPs) before receiving immunizations 4. That it is not necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair 17. 17.) The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication? 1. Diarrhea 2. Hair loss 3. Chest pain 4. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes 18. 18.) The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history? 1. Pancreatitis 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 4. Numbness and tingling in thefingersandtoes Rationale: A side effect specific to vincristine is peripheral neuropathy, which occurs in almost every client. Peripheral neuropathycan be manifestedas numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Depression of the Achilles tendon reflex may be the first clinical sign indicating peripheralneuropathy. Constipation rather than diarrhea is most likely to occur with this medication, although diarrhea may occur occasionally. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain is unrelated to this medication. 1. Pancr eatitis Rationale: Asparaginase (Elspar) is contraindicated if hypersensitivity exists, in pancreatitis, or if the client has a history of pancreatitis. The medication impairs pancreatic functionand pancreatic function tests should be performed beforetherapy begins and when a week or morehas elapsed between administration of thedoses. The client needs to be monitored for signs of pancreatitis, which include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Theconditions noted in options 2, 3, and 4 arenot contraindicated with this medication. 19. 19.) Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to: 1. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis. 2. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids. 3. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response. 4. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. 20. 20.) The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication? 1. Glucose level 4. Competewith estradiolforbinding to estrogen in tissues containinghigh concentrations of receptors. Rationale: Tamoxifenisanantineoplasticmedication thatcompetes with estradiolforbinding toestrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Tamoxifen is used to treatmetastatic breastcarcinoma in women andmen. Tamoxifen is also effective in delaying therecurrenceof cancer following mastectomy. Tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response. 2. Calcium level Rationale: Tamoxifenmayincreasecalcium, cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. Beforetheinitiation of therapy, a complete blood count, platelet count, and serum calcium levels should be assessed. These blood levels, along with cholesterol and triglyceride levels, should be monitoredperiodically duringtherapy. Thenurseshouldassess forhypercalcemia while the client is taking this medication. Signs of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotonicity of muscles, and deep bone and flank pain. 2. Calcium level 3. Potassium level 4. Prothrombin time 21. 21.) A nurse is assisting with caring for a client with cancer who is receiving cisplatin. Select the adverse effects that the nurse monitors for that are associated with this medication. Select all that apply. 1. Tinnitus 1. Tinnitus 2. Ototoxicity 5. Nephrotoxicity 6. Hypomagnesemia Rationale: Cisplatin is analkylating medication. Alkylating medications arecellcyclephase- nonspecific medications that affect the synthesis of DNA by causing thecross-linking of DNA to inhibit cell reproduction. Cisplatin may cause ototoxicity, tinnitus, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and nephrotoxicity. Amifostine (Ethyol) may be administered before cisplatin to reduce the potential for renaltoxicity. 2.Ototoxicity 3. Hyperkalemia 4. Hypercalcemia 5.Nephrotoxicity 6.Hypomagnesemia 22. 22.) A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to: 1. Treat thyroid storm. 2. Prevent cardiac irritability. 3. Treat hypocalcemic tetany. 4. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone. 3. Treat hypocalcemic tetany. Rationale: Hypocalcemia can develop after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands are accidentally removedor injuredduringsurgery. Manifestations develop 1 to 7 days aftersurgery. If theclient develops numbness and tingling around themouth, fingertips, or toes or muscle spasms or twitching, thehealthcareprovider is notifiedimmediately. Calcium gluconate should be keptat the bedside. 23. 23.) A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge? 1. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times. 2. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically. 3. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual 2. Rotatetheinsulin injection sites systematically. Rationale: Insulin dosages should not be adjusted or increasedbeforeunusual exercise. Ifacetoneis found in the urine, it may possibly indicate theneedforadditional insulin. Tominimizethe discomfortassociated with insulin injections, theinsulin should be administeredatroom temperature.Injectionsites shouldbe systematically rotatedfromoneareatoanother. The clientshould be instructedtogiveinjections in onearea, about 1 inch apart, until thewhole areahas beenused and then to change to another site. This prevents dramatic changes in daily insulin absorption. exercise. 4. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage. 24. 24.) A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. Withdraws the NPH insulin first 2. Withdraws the regular insulin first 3. Injects air into NPH insulin vial first 4. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial 25. 25.) A home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse tells the client to: 1. Freeze the insulin. 2. Refrigerate the insulin. 3. Store the insulin in a dark, dry place. 4. Keep the insulin at room temperature. 26. 26.) Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication? 1. Alcohol 2. Organ meats 3. Whole-grain cereals 4. Carbonated beverages 1. WithdrawstheNPH insulinfirst Rationale: When preparing a mixture of regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the regular insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of regularinsulinwith insulin of another type. Options 2, 3, and 4 identify thecorrectactions for preparing NPH and regular insulin. 2. Refrigeratethe insulin. Rationale: Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be frozen. When storedunopenedunderrefrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date on the vial. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 1. Al cohol Rationale: Whenalcohol is combined with glimepiride(Amaryl), a disulfiram-likereactionmay occur. This syndromeincludes flushing, palpitations, andnausea. Alcohol canalso potentiatethe hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication. Theitems in options 2, 3, and 4 do notneedto be avoided. 27. 27.) Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history? 1. Neuralgia 2.Insomnia 3. Use of nitroglycerin 4. Use of multivitamins 28. 28.) The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse knows that which of the following is the appropriate intervention? 1. The medication is administered within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal. 2. The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client. 3. Theclient ismonitoredfor gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication. 4. The insulin is withdrawn from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration. 29. 29.) A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is: 1. 2 to 4 hours after administration 2. 4 to 12 hours after administration 3. 16 to 18 hours after administration 4. 18 to 24 hours after administration 30. 30.) A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus previously had been well controlled with glyburide (DiaBeta) daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia? 1. Prednisone 2. Phenelzine (Nardil) 3. Atenolol (Tenormin) 4. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) 3. Use of nitroglycerin Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide in the corpus cavernosum of the penis, thus sustaining an erection. Because of the effect of the medication, it is contraindicated with concurrentuse of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Sildenafil is not contraindicated with the use of vitamins. Neuralgia and insomnia are side effects of the medication. 2. Themedication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client. Rationale: Exenatide(Byetta) is an incretinmimetic used fortype 2 diabetes mellitus only. It is not recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should hold the medication and question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options 1 and 3 arecorrect statements about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe. 2. 4 to 12 hours after administration Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. 1. Pred nisone Rationale: Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassiumsupplements. Option 2, a monoamineoxidase inhibitor,andoption 3, aβ-blocker, havetheir own intrinsichypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia. 31. 31.) A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." 2. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time." 3. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet." 4. "If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor." 32. 32.) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response? 1. Decreased urinary output 2. Decreased blood pressure 3.Decreased peripheral edema 4. Decreased blood glucose level 33. 33.) The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) andmetformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea can occur secondary tothe metformin. 2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped. 3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating. 4. Candy or another simple sugar is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes. 5. Metformin increases hepatic glucose production to prevent hypoglycemia associated with repaglinide. 6. Muscle pain is an expected side effect of metformin and may be treated with acetaminophen (Tylenol). 1. "I can takeaspiri n or my antihista mine if I need it." Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with thehealth careprovider(HCP). Theclientneeds to takethemedication at thesame time every day and should be instructed not to stop themedication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 lb or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development. 1. Decreased urinary output Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water. The hormone carries out this action by acting on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase their permeability to water, which results in increasedwaterreabsorption. Thetherapeutic effect of this medication would be manifested by a decreased urine output. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the effects of this medication. 1. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin. 2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped. 3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating. 4. Candy or another simplesugar is carried and used to treatmild hypoglycemia episodes. Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-actingoralhypoglycemicagentthatstimulates pancreaticinsulin secretion that should be taken beforemeals, and that should be withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide and the client should always be prepared by carrying a simple sugar with her or him at all times. Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic given in combination with repaglinideand works by decreasing hepatic glucose production. A common side effect of metformin is diarrhea. Muscle pain may occuras an adverse effectfrommetformin but it might signify a moreserious condition that warrants health care provider notification, not the use of acetaminophen. 34. 34.) A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab (Remicade). The nurse assisting in caring for the client should take which action to monitor the effectiveness of treatment? 1. Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion 2. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements 3. Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion 4. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed 35. 35.) The client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). The nurse understands that this medication is used for which condition? 1. Constipation 2.Abdominal pain 3. An episode of diarrhea 4. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage 36. 36.) The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client? 1. Paralytic ileus 2. Incisional pain 3. Urinary retention 4. Nausea and vomiting 37. 37.) The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed? 1. Weight loss 2. Relief of heartburn 3. Reduction of steatorrhea 4. Absence of abdominal pain 38. 38.) An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication? 1. Tremors 2.Dizziness 3. Confusion 4. Hallucinations 2. Checkingthefrequen cyandconsistency of bowelmovements Rationale: The principal manifestations of Crohn's disease are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Infliximab (Remicade) is an immunomodulator that reduces the degree of inflammation in thecolon, therebyreducingthediarrhea. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to this medication. 3. A n e p i s o d e o f d i a r r h e a R a t i o n a l e : Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and also chronic diarrhea in conditions suchas inflammatoryboweldisease. Loperamidealso can be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy. It is not used for the conditions inoptions 1, 2, and 4. 4. Nausea andvomiting Rationale: Ondansetron is an antiemeticused to treatpostoperativenausea and vomiting, as well as nauseaandvomiting associated with chemotherapy. Theotheroptions are incorrect. 3. Reductionofsteatorrhea Rationale: Pancrelipase(PancreaseMT)is apancreaticenzymeused in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status. It is not used to treatabdominal pain or heartburn. Its use could result in weight gain but should not result in weight loss if it is aiding in digestion. 3. Confusion Rationale: Cimetidine is a histamine 2 (H2)-receptorantagonist. Older clients areespecially susceptibletocentralnervoussystem sideeffects of cimetidine. Themostfrequent of these is confusion. Less common central nervous system side effects include headache, dizziness, drowsiness, andhallucinations. 39. 39.) The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times? 1. With meals and at bedtime 2. Every 6 hours around the clock 3. One hour after meals and at bedtime 4. One hour before meals and at bedtime 40. 40.) The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugshasbeen takingmisoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted? 1. Resolved diarrhea 2. Relief of epigastric pain 3. Decreased platelet count 4. Decreased white blood cell count 41. 41.) The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom? 1. Diarrhea 2.Heartburn 3.Flatulence 4. Constipation 42. 42.) A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium),and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen? 1. "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria." 2. "These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer." 3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." 4. "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach." 43. 43.) A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select all that apply. 1. Nizatidine (Axid) 2. Ranitidine (Zantac) 3. Famotidine (Pepcid) 4. Cimetidine (Tagamet) 5. Esomeprazole (Nexium) 6. Lansoprazole (Prevacid) 4. One hour beforemeals and at bedtime Rationale: Sucralfate is a gastric protectant. The medication should be scheduled for administration 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. The medication is timed to allow it to form a protective coating over the ulcer before food intake stimulates gastric acid production and mechanical irritation. The other options are incorrect. 2. Relief of epigastricpain Rationale: Theclient who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is pronetogastric mucosal injury. Misoprostol is a gastric protectant and is given specifically to prevent this occurrence. Diarrhea can be a side effect of themedication, but is not an intended effect. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect. 2. Heartburn Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor classified as an antiulcer agent. The intended effect of the medication is relief of pain from gastric irritation, often called heartburn by clients. Omeprazole is not used to treat the conditions identified in options 1, 3, and 4. 3. "Themedications will kill thebacteria and stoptheacid production." Rationale: Tripletherapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. Clarithromycin and amoxicillin are antibacterials. Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production. 1. Nizatidine (Axid) 2. Ranitidine (Zantac) 3. Famotidine (Pepcid) 4. Cimetidine (Tagamet) Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of pepticulcerdisease. Thesemedications also suppress gastric acid secretions and areused in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton pump inhibitors. H2-receptor antagonists medication names end with -dine. Protonpumpinhibitors medication names end with -zole. 44. 44.) A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use after giving this medication? 1. Ambu bag 2. Intubation tray 3. Nasogastric tube 4. Suction equipment 45. 45.) A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed. The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this medication if the client states that he or she will: 1. Watch for irritability as a side effect. 2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water. 3. Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever. 4. Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed. 46. 46.) A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for: 1. Pupillary changes 2. Scattered lung wheezes 3. Sudden increase in pain 4. Sudden episodes of diarrhea 47. 47.) A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing: 1. Hypercalcemia 2.Peripheral neuritis 3. Small blood vessel spasm 4. Impaired peripheral circulation 4. Suction equipment Rationale: Acetylcysteinecan be given orally or by nasogastric tubetotreatacetaminophen overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. The nurse administering this medication as a mucolytic should have suction equipment available in case the client cannot manage to clear the increased volume of liquefied secretions. 2. Takethe tablet with a full glass of water. Rationale: Guaifenesin is an expectorant. It should be taken with a full glass of water to decreaseviscosity of secretions. Sustained-releasepreparations should not be broken open, crushed, or chewed. The medication may occasionally cause dizziness, headache, or drowsiness as sideeffects. Theclient shouldcontactthe health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache. 3. Sudden increase in pain Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may also be given to the postoperative client to treat respiratory depression. When given to the postoperative client for respiratory depression, it may also reverse the effects of analgesics. Therefore, thenursemustchecktheclient fora suddenincrease in the level of pain experienced. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not associated with this medication. 2. Peripheralneuritis Rationale: A common sideeffect of the TB drug INH is peripheral neuritis. This is manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesias in the extremities. This side effect can be minimized by pyridoxine(vitamin B6) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 areincorrect. 48. 48.) A client is to begin a 6- month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to: 1. Drink alcohol in small amounts only. 2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. 3. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses. 4. Avoidvitaminsuppleme nts during therapy. 49. 49.) A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication: 1. Should always be taken with food or antacids 2. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces 4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months 50. 50.) A nurse has given a client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) information aboutthemedication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that he or she will immediately report: 1. Impaired sense of hearing 2. Problems with visual acuity 3. Gastrointestinal (GI) side effects 4. Orange-red discolorationof body secretions 51. 51.) Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client- teaching plan regarding this medication? 1. Totake the medication before meals 2. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug- level testing 3. It is not necessary to call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs. 4. It is not necessary to restrict alcohol intake with thismedication. 2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. Rationale: INH is hepatotoxic, and thereforetheclient is taught to reportsigns and symptoms of hepatitis immediately (which include yellow skin and sclera). For thesame reason, alcohol should be avoidedduring therapy. Theclientshouldavoidintake of Swiss cheese, fish suchas tuna, and foods containing tyramine because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or lightheadedness. The client can avoiddevelopingperipheralneuritis by increasingtheintake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) during the course of INH therapy for TB. 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces Rationale: Rifampin should be taken exactly as directed as part of TB therapy. Doses should not be doubled or skipped. The client should not stop therapy until directed to do so by a health care provider. The medication should be administered on an empty stomach unless it causes gastrointestinal upset, and then it may be taken with food. Antacids, if prescribed, should be takenatleast 1 hourbeforethemedication. Rifampin causes orange- reddiscoloration of body secretions and will permanently stain soft contact lenses. 2. Problems with visual acuity Rationale: Ethambutolcausesoptic neuritis, which decreasesvisualacuity and theability todiscriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client is also taught to take the medication with food if GI upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antituberculartherapywith streptomycin. Orangereddiscoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin). 2. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing Rationale: Cycloserine (Seromycin) is an antitubercular medication that requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitorfor the potential of neurotoxicity. Serum drug levels lower than 30 mcg/mL reducetheincidence of neurotoxicity. The medication must be takenafter meals to preventgastrointestinalirritation. Theclientmust be instructedtonotifythe HCP if a skinrash or signs of central nervous system toxicity are noted. Alcohol must be avoided because it increases the risk of seizure activity. 52. 52.) A client with tuberculosis is being started on antituberculosis therapy with isoniazid (INH). Before giving the client the first dose, a nurse ensures that which of the following baseline studies has been completed? 1. Electrolyte levels 2. Coagulation times 3. Liver enzyme levels 4. Serum creatinine level 53. 53.) Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select all that apply. 1. Signs of hepatitis 2. Flu-like syndrome 3. Low neutrophil count 4. Vitamin B6 deficiency 5. Ocular pain or blurred vision 6. Tingling and numbness of the fingers 54. 54.) A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching? 1. "I will take my pills every day at the same time." 2. "I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption." 3. "I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet." 3. Liver enzyme levels Rationale: INH therapy can cause an elevation of hepatic enzyme levels and hepatitis. Therefore, liverenzymelevels aremonitoredwhentherapyis initiated andduring the first 3 months of therapy. They may be monitored longer in theclient who is greater than age 50 or abusesalcohol. 1. Signs of hepatitis 2. Flu-like syndrome 3. Low neutrophil count 5. Ocular pain or blurred vision Rationale: Rifabutin (Mycobutin) may be prescribed for a client with active MAC disease and tuberculosis. It inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis. Side effects include rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, neutropenia (low neutrophilcount), red-orangebody secretions, uveitis (blurred vision and eye pain), myositis, arthralgia, hepatitis, chest pain with dyspnea, and flu- likesyndrome. Vitamin B6 deficiencyandnumbnessand tingling in theextremities are associated with the use of isoniazid (INH). Ethambutol (Myambutol) also causes peripheral neuritis. 4. "I willtakeEcotrin (enteric-coatedaspirin) for my headachesbecause it is coated." Rationale: Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Alcohol consumption should be avoided by a client taking warfarin sodium. Taking prescribedmedication at thesame time eachday increasesclientcompliance. The Medic-Alert bracelet provides health care personnel emergency information. 4."I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated." 55. 55.) A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A health care provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin? 1. 3 to 5 ng/mL 2. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL 3. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL 4. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL 2.) 0.5 to 2 ng/mL Rationale: Therapeuticlevels fordigoxinrangefrom0.5 to 2 ng/mL. Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 56. 56.) Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the health care provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication? 1. Hematocrit level 2. Hemoglobin level 3. Prothrombin time (PT) 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 57. 57.) A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol? 1. The development of complaints of insomnia 2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes 3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication 4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two dosesof the medication 58. 58.) Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client: 1. Cut the dose in half. 2. Discontinue the medication. 3. Take the medication with food. 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 59. 59.) A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for renal failure. 2. Monitor psychosocial status. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. 4. Have heparin sodium available. 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) Rationale: The PT will assess for the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) and the aPTT will assess the therapeutic effect of heparin sodium. Heparin sodium doses are determined based on these laboratory results. The hemoglobin and hematocrit values assess red blood cell concentrations. 2. Thedevelopment of audibleexpiratory wheezes Rationale: Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. β- Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressureand heart rateare expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored. 3. Take the medication with food. Rationale: Isosorbidemononitrateis anantianginalmedication. Headache is afrequentsideeffect of isosorbide mononitrate and usually disappears during continued therapy. If a headacheoccurs during therapy, theclient should be instructed to takethemedication with food or meals. It is not necessary to contact the HCP unless the headaches persist with therapy. It is not appropriate to instruct the client to discontinue therapy or adjust the dosages. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. Rationale: Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for renalfailureandmonitoring theclient's psychosocialstatus areimportant butarenotthe most critical interventions. Heparin is given after thrombolytic therapy, but the question is not asking about follow-up medications. 60. 60.) A nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client. The nurse understands that which of the following are concerns related to the administration of this medication? 1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia 2. Increased risk of osteoporosis 3.Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy 4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy 61. 61.) A home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates the need for further education? 1. "Constipation and bloating might be a problem." 2. "I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats." 3. "Walking a mile each day will help the whole process." 4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store." 62. 62.) A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol." 2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 3."Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4."Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing." 3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy Rationale: Thiazidediuretics such as hydrochlorothiazidearesulfa-based medications, and a client with a sulfa allergy is at risk for an allergic reaction. Also, clients areat risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. 4. "I'llcontinue my nicotinicacidfromthehealth foodstore." Rationale: Nicotinic acid, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. All lipid-lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramineresin is to be avoided. Constipation andbloating arethe two mostcommonsideeffects. Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet aretherapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels. 4. "Ibuprofen(Motrin) taken30 minutes beforethenicotinicacidshoulddecreasethe flushing." Rationale: Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti- inflammatorydrugcan be taken30 minutesbeforetaking themedication todecrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. Themedicationshould betakenwith meals, this will decreasegastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Claycolored stools area sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP). 63. 63.) A client with coronary artery disease complains of substernal chest pain. After checking the client's heart rate and blood pressure, a nurse administers nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. After 5 minutes, the client states, "My chest still hurts." Select the appropriate actions that the nurse should take. Select all that apply. 1. Call a code blue. 2. Contact the registered nurse. 3. Contact the client's family. 4. Assess the client's pain level. 5. Check the client's blood pressure. 6. Administer a second nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. 64. 64.) Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client? 1. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) 2. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage 3. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage 4. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram) 65. 65.) A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Maintain a high fluid intake. 3. If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider (HCP) immediately. 4. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response. 66. 66.) Trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is prescribed for a client. A nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom if it developed during the course of this medication therapy? 1. Nausea 2. Diarrhea 3. Headache 4. Sore throat 2. Contact the registered nurse. 4. Assess the client's pain level. 5. Check the client's blood pressure. 6. Administer a second nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. Rationale: Theusual guidelinefor administering nitroglycerin tablets for a hospitalized client with chest pain is to administer onetablet every 5 minutes PRN for chest pain, for a total dose of threetablets. The registerednurse should be notified of theclient's condition, who will thennotify thehealth careprovideras appropriate. Becausetheclient is still complaining of chest pain, thenurse would administer a second nitroglycerin tablet. The nursewould assess the client's pain level and check the client's blood pressurebeforeadministering each nitroglycerin dose. Thereare no data in the question that indicate the need to call a code blue. In addition, it is not necessary to contact the client's family unless theclient has requested this. 2. Adecreasein thewarfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage Rationale: Nalidixic acidcan intensify theeffects of oralanticoagulants by displacing theseagents from binding sites on plasma protein. When an oral anticoagulant is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be needed. 2. Maintain a high fluid intake. Rationale: Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be administered with a full glass of water, and the client should maintain a high fluid intake. The medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. The client should not be instructed to taper or discontinue the dose. Some forms of sulfisoxazole cause urine to turn dark brown or red. This does not indicate the need to notify the HCP. 4. Sore throat Rationale: Clients taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)should be informedabout early signs of blood disorders that can occur from this medication. These include sore throat, fever, and pallor, and the client should be instructed to notify the health care provider if these symptoms occur. The other options do not requirehealth careprovider notification. 67. 67.) Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client: 1. To take the medication at bedtime 2. To take the medication before meals 3. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs 4. That a reddish orange discoloration of the urine may occur 68. 68.) Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication? 1. Gastric atony 2. Urinary strictures 3. Neurogenic atony 4. Gastroesophageal reflux 69. 69.) A nurse who is administering bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is monitoring for acute toxicity associated with the medication. Thenurse checks the client for which sign of toxicity? 1. Dry skin 2. Dry mouth 3.Bradycardia 4. Signs of dehydration 70. 70.) Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication? 1. Pallor 2. Drowsiness 3.Bradycardia 4. Restlessness 71. 71.) After kidney transplantation, cyclosporine (Sand immune) is prescribed for a client. Which laboratory result would indicate an adverse effect from the use of this medication? 1. Decreased creatinine level 2. Decreased hemoglobin level 3. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level 4. Decreased white blood cell count 4. That a reddish orangediscoloration of the urinemay occur Rationale: Thenurseshould instruct theclient that a reddish-orangediscoloration of urine may occur. Thenursealso shouldinstruct theclient that this discoloration can stain fabric. Themedicationshould be takenaftermeals to reducethe possibility of gastrointestinal upset. A headache is an occasional side effect of themedication and does not warrant discontinuation of themedication. 2. Urinary strictures Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can be harmful to clients with urinary tract obstruction or weakness of thebladder wall. Themedication has theability to contract the bladder and thereby increase pressure within the urinary tract. Elevation of pressure within the urinary tract could rupturethe bladder in clients with these conditions. 3. Bradycardia Rationale: Toxicity (overdose) produces manifestations of excessive muscarinic stimulation such as salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. Treatmentincludes supportive measures andtheadministration of atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously. 4. Restlessness Rationale: Toxicity(overdosage) of this medication produces centralnervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity includehypotensionor hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, flushed or redface, and signs of respiratory depression. Drowsiness is a frequentsideeffect of themedication but does not indicate overdosage. 3. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level Rationale: Nephrotoxicitycanoccurfromtheuse of cyclosporine(Sandimmune). Nephrotoxicity is evaluated by monitoring for elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatininelevels. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant but does not depress the bone marrow. 72. 72.) Cinoxacin (Cinobac), a urinary antiseptic, is prescribed for the client. The nurse reviews the client's medical record and should contact the health care provider (HCP) regarding which documented finding to verify the prescription? Refer to chart. 1. Renal insufficiency 2. Chest x-ray: normal 3. Blood glucose, 102 mg/dL 4. Folic acid (vitamin B6) 0.5 mg, orally daily 73. 73.) A client with myasthenia gravis is suspected of having cholinergic crisis. Which of the following indicate that this crisis exists? 1. Ataxia 2. Mouth sores 3. Hypotension 4. Hypertension 74. 74.) A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse monitors for signs and symptoms of cholinergic crisis caused by overdose of the medication. The nurse checks the medication supply to ensure that which medication is available for administration if a cholinergic crisis occurs? 1. Vitamin K 2. Atropine sulfate 3. Protamine sulfate 4. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 75. 75.) A client with myasthenia gravisbecomes increasingly weak. The health care provider prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic crisis) or increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium (Enlon) is administered. Which of the following indicates that the client is in cholinergic crisis? 1. No change in the condition 2. Complaints of muscle spasms 3. An improvement of the weakness 4. A temporary worsening of the condition 76. 76.) Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) is prescribed for a client with Parkinson's disease, and the nurse monitors the client for adverse reactions to the medication. Which of the following indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction? 1. Pruritus 2. Tachycardia 3.Hypertension 4. Impaired voluntary movements 1. Renal insufficiency Rationale: Cinoxacin should be administered with caution in clients with renal impairment. The dosage should be reduced, and failure to do so could result in accumulation of cinoxacin totoxic levels. Thereforethenurse would verify the prescription if the client had a documented history of renal insufficiency. The laboratory and diagnostic test results are normal findings. Folic acid (vitamin B6) may be prescribedfor a client with renal insufficiency to prevent anemia. 4. Hypertension Rationale: Cholinergic crisis occurs as a result of an overdose of medication. Indications of cholinergic crisis include gastrointestinal disturbances, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, increased salivation and tearing, miosis, hypertension, sweating, and increased bronchial secretions. 2. Atropine sulfate Rationale: Theantidoteforcholinergic crisis is atropinesulfate. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin). Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, and acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is the antidote for acetaminophen (Tylenol). 4. A temporary worsening of thecondition Rationale: An edrophonium (Enlon) injection, a cholinergic drug, makes the client in cholinergic crisis temporarily worse. This is known as a negative test. An improvement of weakness would occur if the client were experiencingmyasthenia gravis. Options 1 and 2 would not occur in either crisis. 4. Impaired voluntarymovements Rationale: Dyskinesia and impaired voluntary movement may occur with high levodopa dosages. Nausea, anorexia, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, bradycardia, and akinesia (the temporary muscle weakness that lasts 1 minute to 1 hour, also known as the"on-off phenomenon") are frequent side effects of the medication. 77. 77.) Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg orally three times daily, has been prescribed for a client for seizure control. The nurse reinforces instructions regarding the medication to the client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth." 2. "It's all right to break the capsules to make it easier for me to swallow them." 3. "If I forget to take my medication, I can wait until the next dose and eliminate that dose." 4. "If my throat becomes sore, it's a normal effect of the medication and it's nothing to be concerned about." 78. 78.) A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range? 1. 5 to 10 mcg/mL 2. 10 to 20 mcg/mL 3. 20 to 30 mcg/mL 4. 30 to 40 mcg/mL 79. 79.) Ibuprofen (Advil) is prescribed for a client. The nurse tells the client to take the medication: 1. With 8 oz of milk 2. In the morning after arising 3.60 minutes before breakfast 4.At bedtime on an empty stomach 80. 80.) A nurse is caring for a client who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of seizures. During data collection, the nurse notes that the client is taking birth control pills. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client? 1. Pregnancy should be avoided while taking phenytoin (Dilantin). 2. The client may stop taking the phenytoin (Dilantin) if it is causing severe gastrointestinal effects. 3. The potential for decreased effectiveness of the birth control pills exists while taking phenytoin (Dilantin). 4. The increased risk of thrombophlebitis exists while taking phenytoin (Dilantin) and birth control pills together. 1. "I will useasoft toothbrush tobrush my teeth." Rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) is an anticonvulsant. Gingival hyperplasia, bleeding, swelling, and tenderness of thegums can occur with theuse of this medication. Theclient needs to be taught good oral hygiene, gum massage, and theneed for regular dentist visits. The client should not skip medication doses, because this could precipitate a seizure. Capsules should not be chewed or broken and they must be swallowed. The client needs to be instructed to report a sorethroat, fever, glandular swelling, or any skin reaction, because this indicates hematological toxicity. 2. 10 to20 mcg/mL Rationale: The therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. * A helpful hint may be to remember that the theophylline therapeutic range and the acetaminophen (Tylenol) therapeutic range are the same as the phenytoin (Dilantin) therapeutic range.* 1. With 8 oz of milk Rationale: Ibuprofenisanonsteroidalanti-inflammatorydrug(NSAID). NSAIDs should be given withmilk or food topreventgastrointestinalirritation. Options 2, 3, and 4 areincorrect. 3. The potential for decreased effectiveness of thebirth control pills exists while taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) enhances the rate of estrogen metabolism, which can decrease the effectiveness of some birth control pills. Options 1, 2, are 4 are not accurate. 81. 81.) A client with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory result would indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication? 1. Sodium level, 140 mEq/L 2. Uric acid level, 5.0 mg/dL 3. White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3 4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, 15 mg/dL 82. 82.) A client is receiving meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for pain. Which of the following are side effects of this medication. Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea 2. Tremors 3.Drowsiness 4. Hypotension 5. Urinary frequency 6. Increased respiratory rate 83. 83.) The client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept (Enbrel), it is most i