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(Solved with Rationales) Pass CCRN test bank.

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Which of the following would be the earliest auscultatory finding in left ventricular failure (LVF)? A. Crackles B. S3 C. Murmur of mitral regurgitation D. Pericardial friction rub B. S3 LVF would be the most subtle because early changes are usually subtle changes. Choose "S3." A patient with a triple-lumen subclavian catheter has been receiving total parenteral nutrition, maintenance fluids, and antibiotics by the catheter. He has been slightly confused. Suddenly he grasps the catheter and pulls it out. He then complains of shortness of breath, and his pulse oximetry indicates an SpO2 of 84%. How should this patient be positioned? A. Head down, left side B. Head down, right side C. Head of bed elevated, left side D. Head of bed elevated, right side A. Head down, left side Envision a big air bubble in the patient's heart. Think: what position would decrease the movement of the air embolism out of the right side of the heart. Chose "Head down, left side." Oxygen delivery (DO2) is the product of which of the following? A. PaO2, hemoglobin, mean arterial pressure B. SaO2, hemoglobin, cardiac output C. SvO2, cardiac index, SaO2 D. PaO2, mean arterial pressure, SvO2 B. SaO2, hemoglobin, cardiac output Oxygen is delivered from the arterial end, so choose an option that has SaO2 Which of the following is the most significant complication of status asthmaticus? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Acute respiratory failure C. Hypertension D. Anaphylaxis B. Acute respiratory failure A 22-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit after a motor vehicle collision. The emergency department nurse reports that he was unconscious at the scene of the accident, but he is now alert and oriented. Skull films show a linear fracture of the right temporal bone. He is at significant risk for: A. scalp hematoma. B. subdural hematoma. C. epidural hematoma. D. intracerebral hematoma. C. epidural hematoma. Linear fractures of the temporal bone frequently disrupt the middle meningeal artery and cause epidural hematoma. Patients with an epidural hematoma classically present with a short period of unconsciousness followed by a lucid interval and then rapid deterioration. An epidural hematoma is usually caused by arterial bleeding. A patient is admitted to the ICU after sustaining a concussion and blunt abdominal trauma to the right upper quadrant in a domestic dispute. The patient's vital signs are BP 145/86 mm Hg, pulse 86 beats/min, respiration 15 breaths/min, and temperature 98.8° F. The nurse is monitoring the patient's bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and abdominal girth frequently. Which of the following laboratory parameters is especially important for the nurse to closely monitor for bleeding in this patient? A. Platelet count B. Protime C. Hematocrit D. Mean corpuscular volume C. Hematocrit Common injuries resulting from blunt abdominal trauma can include injury to the liver, spleen, mesenteric vessels, pancreas, or kidneys. In a nonoperative approach to blunt abdominal trauma, observation and monitoring include serial hematocrits to evaluate for intra-abdominal bleeding. The platelet count does not fluctuate unless there is a disease process (e.g. cirrhosis, leukemia) or significant blood loss. Protime is a monitor of coagulation status and can be prolonged without active bleeding. Mean corpuscular volume measures the average volume or size of a single RBC and is used in classifying anemias. Which of the following is associated with chest pain, confusion, and petechiae? A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Fat embolism C. Pneumothorax D. Myocardial infarction B. Fat embolism Chest pain, confusion, and petechiae are suggestive of a fat embolism, especially within the first 48 to 72 hours after a long-bone fracture. The clincher is the petechiae. None of the other choices would cause petechiae. Which type of shock is most likely to be iatrogenic? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Neurogenic C. Septic Iatrogenic means caused by treatment or diagnostic procedures or medically induced. Septic shock is the type of shock most likely to be iatrogenic. Significant contributors include immunosuppressive medications and therapies and invasive procedures. A patient had a craniotomy 2 days ago for removal of a tumor. He is awake and talking to the nurse and demonstrates no neurologic deficit. Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, pulse is 92 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. Urine outputs have been approximately 60 ml/hr over the last 2 days, but he has had a recent change. He has had 300 to 400 ml/hr of urine output over the last several hours. The urine has a specific gravity of 1.002. The nurse checks his serum glucose and finds that it is 100 mg/dl. The cause of hypernatremia in this patient is:

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NTR 343 Final Exam Quiz Bank 2022
1. All of the following B vitamins are involved in oxidative decarboxylation of
pyruvate except:
c. Folate
2. Explain in scientific detail how certain foods can inhibit the absorption of
thiamin. List four food examples.
Some foods contain thiaminases which break the weak methylene bridge between the
two rings in the thiamin structure. Example foods are raw fish, tea, shrimp, mussels,
clams, fish paste, betel nuts, ferns
3. Which of the following is not a function of thiamin?
c. Synthesis of FADH2
5. What is the Tolerable Upper Level of thiamin? Why was this amount
established.?
There is none, as it would not occur from diet.
6. Name and explain three exceptions of vitamins that do not have to be provided
for in the diet.
Vitamin D: synthesized in skin by high energy radiation Vitamin K: synthesized in gut by
intestinal flora Niacin: converted from tryptophan in tissues Choline: synthesized in
metabolism
7. Why is milk kept in a cardboard or opaque container?
Milk is kept in opaque containers because the riboflavin that is found abundantly in milk
is unstable and easily destroyed when exposed to UV light
8. Explain the role of FAD in the restoration of glutathione to its active form.
FAD is the coenzyme for glutathione reductase; it adds hydrogens to the oxidized form
of glutathione to create the reduced form that is active.
9. A dietary staple of cornbread led to pellagra in the southern United States, yet
a dietary staple of corn tortillas did not cause a deficiency in niacin. Explain the
scientific reason for this.
Niacin in the corn meal of cornbread is bound to a protein, so the vitamin is not
available. Corn tortillas are made from corn meal that has subject to alkaline hydrolysis
(cooking in lime water or CaOH) to make masa harina (the ingredient for tortillas). This
process liberates the niacin (and creates the ability to make a tortilla from meal that
sticks together).
11. What are the differences between the functions of NAD and NADP? Be
specific
NAD is needed for energy metabolism (Including glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation of
pyruvate, oxidation of acetyl CoA, beta oxidation of fatty acids, and oxidation of ethanol)
while NADP is needed for synthesis of fats, cholesterol, and steroid synthesis.
12. Explain why B6 supplements can cause toxicity. How does this compare to
Vitamin B12?
B6 supplements are in the form of pyridoxine, which is a competitive inhibitor of the
active enzyme, pyridoxal phosphate. Additionally, an excess of B6 and a deficiency of
Vitamin B12, can both cause neuropathy.
13. Explain the function of Delta-6-Desaturase and how it is related to a B vitamin.

, It is a PLP-dependent enzyme that metabolizes both omega 6 and omega 3 fatty acids
to 20 carbon compounds by desaturation of linolenic and gamma-linolenic acid.
14. List three food sources of Vitamin B6 . Is it present in enriched flour? Explain
why or why not.
Meat, Poultry, Fish, and Starchy Vegetables. It is not in enriched flour because it is
found in many foods and requirements can be reached within an adequate diet.
15. List four inhibitors of the digestion of folate
alcohol, acidic environment, cabbage, zinc deficiency, legumes, oranges pick four
16. Name and explain the role of micronutrients required for folate digestion and
activation.
Zinc is required for digestion as it shortens the polyglutamate tail of folate from foods to
form the monoglutamate form that can be absorbed. Vitamin B12 is required for
activation; folate is inactive in its methylated form, and B12 is used to remove the
methyl group.
17. Explain the dual role of folate in cancer development. How is this related to
the tolerable upper limit?
Low folate intake protects against early carcinogenesis. But high folate intake can
promote advanced carcinogenesis. High levels of folate (1000 mg/d) increased the risk
of advanced colorectal lesions; so the upper limit is 1000 mg (1 mg).
18. Where was folate given as a supplement by the Public Health Service in the
United States? Why?
The Rio Grande Valley. This area has had a high incidence of neural tube defects.
Although it could have a multifactorial etiology, this may have been a consequence of
folate deficiency in some pregnant women.
19. What age group is most likely to have a vitamin B12 deficiency and why?
The elderly (>50 years) because they secrete less acid and less intrinsic factor and may
have used proton pump inhibitors that reduce acid secretion for >2 yrs.
20. Why is vitamin B12 deficiency almost nonexistent among vegans in third
world countries than vegans in developed countries?
The sanitation process of root vegetables sold in third world countries does not fully
remove the dirt from all the vegetables, and the dirt has fecal material which contains
bacteria that produce vitamin B12.
21. Explain how choline can contribute to the prevention of cardiovascular
disease.
Choline can be oxidized to betaine in the liver. Betaine can then function as a methyl
group donor to homocysteine by the action of a methyltransferase enzyme generating
methionine. Reduction of homocysteine levels lowers the risk for health disease and
stroke.
22. A patient is suspected to have a choline toxicity. What would the symptoms,
and likely be the cause of the toxicity?
The patient may have a fishy body odor, vomiting, salivation, sweating, decreased blood
pressure, or tinnitus. Deficiency would likely be due to use of supplements.
23. Why is choline a "conditionally essential" vitamin?
Humans are capable of producing choline from glycine. Yet there is an RDI for choline
because it is important for fetal development during pregnancy.
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